The nurse is assessing a 73-year-old patient who was diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer. The nurse notes that the patient is exhibiting signs of loss, grief, and intense sadness. Based on this assessment data, the nurse will document that the patient is most likely in what stage of death and dying?

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Question 1 of 9

The nurse is assessing a 73-year-old patient who was diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer. The nurse notes that the patient is exhibiting signs of loss, grief, and intense sadness. Based on this assessment data, the nurse will document that the patient is most likely in what stage of death and dying?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. In the context of the stages of death and dying proposed by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, a patient exhibiting signs of loss, grief, and intense sadness is likely in the depression stage. This stage involves feelings of hopelessness, despair, and sorrow as the patient comes to terms with the reality of their situation. Denial (choice B) is characterized by a refusal to accept the diagnosis, anger (choice C) involves feelings of resentment and frustration, and resignation (choice D) signifies a sense of acceptance and peace. In this scenario, the patient's emotional state aligns most closely with depression, indicating a deep sense of sadness and mourning.

Question 2 of 9

A patient was prescribed an oral antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis. The patient has now stopped, stating she developed a rash shortly after taking the first dose of the drug. What is the nurses most appropriate response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Refer the woman to her primary care provider to have the medication changed. Rationale: 1. Rash after taking the first dose of an antibiotic suggests a possible allergic reaction. 2. Allergic reactions can range from mild to severe, including anaphylaxis. 3. It is crucial to discontinue the suspected medication to prevent worsening of the reaction. 4. Referring the patient to their primary care provider ensures proper evaluation and management. 5. Changing the medication is necessary to avoid potential harm from continued exposure. Summary: A: Continuing the medication can worsen the allergic reaction and is not recommended. C: Going to the emergency department may be excessive at this point for a mild rash. D: Taking an antihistamine does not address the underlying issue of an allergic reaction.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is taking a history on a patient whocannot speak English. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain an interpreter. This is the best action as it ensures effective communication and accurate understanding of the patient's history and needs. Using a professional interpreter maintains confidentiality, avoids misinterpretation, and promotes cultural sensitivity. Referring to a speech therapist (B) is not appropriate for language barriers. Letting a family member talk (C) may compromise privacy and accuracy. Finding a mental health nurse specialist (D) is not needed for language translation.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is teaching the staff about informatics.Which information from the staff indicates the nurse needs to follow up?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Computer competency does not equate to informatics competency. Informatics involves more than just basic computer skills; it encompasses the ability to use technology to manage and analyze data for improved healthcare outcomes. A: This is a correct statement about informatics proficiency. B: This is also a correct statement about the skills needed for informatics. D: This is a true statement about nursing informatics being a recognized specialty, but it does not indicate a need for follow-up. In summary, choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the concept of informatics, while choices A, B, and D provide accurate information related to informatics.

Question 5 of 9

As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the high-risk obstetric patient who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer–Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: immediate birth is required. The Kleihauer–Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage in situations where there is a risk of fetal blood entering the maternal circulation, such as trauma during pregnancy. A positive result indicates a significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which can lead to Rh incompatibility and severe fetal anemia. Immediate birth is required to prevent complications and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choice B is incorrect as transferring the patient to the critical care unit does not address the underlying issue of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as RhoGAM is typically administered to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive babies, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as a tetanus shot is not directly related to the positive Kleihauer–Betke test result indicating fetal-maternal hemorrhage.

Question 6 of 9

Which types of nurses make the best communicatorswith patients?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Those who develop critical thinking skills. Critical thinking skills enable nurses to assess situations, analyze information, and communicate effectively with patients. By using critical thinking, nurses can tailor their communication style to each patient's needs, leading to better understanding and rapport. A: Learning effective psychomotor skills is important but does not directly correlate with being a good communicator. C: Liking different kinds of people is beneficial for interpersonal relationships, but it does not necessarily make one a better communicator. D: Maintaining perceptual biases hinders effective communication as it can lead to misunderstandings and barriers in the communication process.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patients nutritional needs?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter. TPN provides comprehensive nutrition intravenously, bypassing the GI tract, which is important for patients unable to tolerate oral intake. A peripherally inserted central catheter allows for long-term TPN administration. A: Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV is not ideal for long-term nutrition as it may not provide complete nutrition. C: Insertion of an NG tube may not be feasible due to the tumor location and the patient's inability to tolerate oral intake. D: Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration alone may lead to malnutrition over time as it does not provide adequate nutrition.

Question 8 of 9

A medical nurse is providing palliative care to a patient with a diagnosis of end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary goal of this nurses care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To improve the patients and familys quality of life. In palliative care for end-stage COPD, the primary goal is to enhance quality of life by managing symptoms, providing emotional support, and ensuring comfort. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care focuses on comfort rather than aggressive treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care encompasses not only physical but also emotional, social, and spiritual support. Choice D is incorrect as the goal is to provide holistic care rather than separate plans for each discipline. Ultimately, the primary focus of palliative care in this scenario is to improve the overall quality of life for the patient and their family.

Question 9 of 9

A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient’s magnesium level is 6 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop the infusion of magnesium. A magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range (4-7 mg/dL) for preeclamptic patients receiving magnesium sulfate. Continuing the infusion can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and neuromuscular blockade. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate (B) and deep tendon reflexes (C) are important, but stopping the infusion takes priority to prevent harm. Notifying the health care provider (D) is important but may delay immediate action to address the high magnesium level.

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