ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is assessing a 16-year-old patient with head injuries from a recent motor vehicle accident. Which of the following statements indicates the most important reason for assessing for any drainage from the canal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bloody or clear watery drainage can indicate a basal skull fracture. 2. Basal skull fractures can cause cerebrospinal fluid leakage, leading to clear watery drainage. 3. Blood in the ear canal can suggest a temporal bone fracture. 4. Assessing for drainage helps identify potential serious head injuries. Summary: A. Incorrect. Purulent drainage indicates infection, not related to head injuries. C. Incorrect. Increased cerumen is not the priority in assessing head injuries. D. Incorrect. Foreign bodies in the canal are not the primary concern in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
During the assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting, the nurse notes the following: dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. This finding is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue indicate dehydration in the patient. Dehydration causes decreased saliva production, leading to dry mouth and tongue fissures. This is a common symptom of dehydration. The lack of moisture in the oral cavity can result in these physical signs. The other choices are incorrect because irritation by gastric juices typically presents with other symptoms, a normal oral condition would not show these specific findings, and side effects of nausea medication would not directly cause dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. Therefore, the correct answer is A: dehydration.
Question 3 of 9
To assess colour vision in a male child, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testing for color vision once between the ages of 4 and 8 is appropriate to assess any potential color vision deficiencies. This age range is crucial as color vision development is mostly completed by the age of 8. Annual checks (A) are not necessary unless there are specific concerns. Asking the child to identify clothing color (B) may not be a reliable indicator of color vision deficiency. No information is provided for option D.
Question 4 of 9
During history-taking, a patient tells the nurse that he has frequent nosebleeds and asks about the best way to prevent them. What would be the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient experiences nosebleeds, the best way to stop it is by sitting straight with the head tilted slightly forward and pinching the nose firmly for about 10-15 minutes. This position helps reduce blood flow to the nose and promotes clotting. It is important not to tilt the head back as it can lead to blood going down the throat and potentially causing choking or vomiting. Cold compresses can also be applied to help constrict blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the proper technique for managing nosebleeds and can potentially worsen the situation.
Question 5 of 9
A very concerned mother is at the clinic with her infant who has a large, soft lump on the side of his head. She tells the nurse that she noticed the lump about 8 hours after her baby's birth and that it seems to be getting bigger. One possible explanation for this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cephalhematoma. A cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum, typically occurring due to trauma during birth. In this case, the lump appeared 8 hours after birth, which aligns with the timeline for cephalhematoma development. It is soft because it consists of blood, and it can increase in size as the blood accumulates. Incorrect Choices: A: Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain, not a collection of blood. B: Craniosynostosis is the premature fusion of skull bones, leading to an abnormal head shape, not a collection of blood. D: Caput succedaneum is swelling of the soft tissues of a newborn's scalp due to pressure during delivery, not a collection of blood.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is performing middle ear assessment on a 15-year-old patient who has a history of chronic ear infections. When examining the right tympanic membrane, the nurse sees dense white patches. The tympanic membrane is otherwise unremarkable. It is pearly, with the light reflex at 5 o'clock and visible landmarks. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections. The presence of dense white patches on the tympanic membrane in a patient with a history of chronic ear infections indicates scarring from previous infections. This is a common finding in individuals who have experienced recurrent middle ear infections. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Fungal infections typically present with different characteristics such as discoloration or debris in the ear canal, not dense white patches on the tympanic membrane. C) Blood in the middle ear would manifest as redness or hemorrhage, not white patches. D) While scarring may affect hearing, the description of the tympanic membrane in this case does not suggest any immediate concern for hearing loss.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient's eyes for the accommodation response and would expect to see:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: convergence of the axes of the eyes. During the accommodation response, the eyes converge to focus on a near object. This is necessary to maintain clear vision when looking at close objects. Dilation of the pupils (A) is not part of the accommodation response. A consensual light reflex (B) refers to both pupils constricting simultaneously in response to light, not specific to accommodation. Conjugate movement of the eyes (C) refers to both eyes moving together in the same direction, which is not the primary action during accommodation.
Question 8 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements about the outer layer of the eye is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the trigeminal (CN V) and the trochlear (CN IV) nerves are indeed stimulated when the outer surface of the eye is stimulated. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensation of touch in the face and controls the muscles involved in chewing. The trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which helps with downward and inward eye movements. Therefore, when the outer layer of the eye is touched or stimulated, these nerves are activated to convey the sensation to the brain. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: The outer layer of the eye is not particularly sensitive to touch compared to other areas like the cornea or conjunctiva. B: The outer layer of the eye is not darkly pigmented; the pigmented layer is actually the uvea inside the eye. D: The visual receptive layer of the eye, known as the retina, is located deeper within the eye, not