Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Radiation therapy can lead to damage to the skin and blood vessels, affecting wound healing. The nurse should prioritize assessing the patient's skin integrity and any signs of impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery. A: Cognitive deficits - While radiation therapy can impact cognitive function in some cases, it is not the most immediate concern related to surgery post-radiation therapy. C: Cardiac tamponade - Although radiation therapy can increase the risk of heart-related issues, such as pericarditis, cardiac tamponade is a rare and acute complication that is not the most likely immediate concern post-radiation therapy. D: Tumor lysis syndrome - This syndrome is more commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. It is not typically a concern immediately post-radiation therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Self-Care Deficit Related to Skin Lesions. Patients with atopic dermatitis may experience difficulty performing self-care tasks due to pain, itching, and limitations in hand mobility caused by skin lesions. This diagnosis addresses the potential challenges the patient may face in maintaining personal hygiene and managing their skin condition. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Risk for Disturbed Body Image Related to Skin Lesions - While atopic dermatitis may impact body image, the priority in this case is the patient's ability to perform self-care. B: Risk for Disuse Syndrome Related to Dermatitis - Disuse syndrome is not typically associated with atopic dermatitis. C: Risk for Ineffective Role Performance Related to Dermatitis - This diagnosis focuses on the patient's ability to fulfill their roles, which may not be directly impacted by atopic dermatitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary prevention. This program focuses on screening for relevant cancers, which is a key component of secondary prevention aimed at early detection and treatment to reduce the impact of the disease. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat health conditions in their early stages. Disease prophylaxis (A) focuses on preventing the occurrence of a disease, while risk reduction (B) aims to lower the chances of developing a disease. Tertiary prevention (D) involves managing and improving outcomes for individuals already diagnosed with a disease. In this scenario, the emphasis on screening aligns closely with the goals of secondary prevention, making it the most appropriate choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because habit training involves keeping a bladder diary to identify patterns and develop a toileting schedule. This helps in promoting regular voiding habits. B is incorrect because timed voiding isn't solely based on the patient's urge to void, but rather on a predetermined schedule. C is incorrect as prompted voiding involves reminding patients to use the restroom at regular intervals, not just asking if they are wet or dry. D is incorrect because elevating feet in patients with edema may help reduce swelling but has no direct impact on nighttime voiding.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased abdominal girth. In ovarian cancer, a common clinical manifestation is the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, leading to increased abdominal girth. This is known as ascites. The presence of ascites can be observed through physical examination and abdominal imaging. A: Fish-like vaginal odor is not typically associated with ovarian cancer. It may be a symptom of other gynecological conditions. C: Fever and chills are not specific to ovarian cancer and can be seen in various infectious or inflammatory conditions. D: Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common symptom in many gynecological conditions but is not a specific manifestation of ovarian cancer.