The nurse is administering liquid oral iron supplements. Which intervention is appropriate when administering this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instruct the patient to take the medication through a plastic straw. This is because iron supplements can stain teeth, and using a straw can help minimize direct contact with teeth, reducing the risk of staining. A: Having the patient take the liquid iron with milk is incorrect as calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. C: Having the patient sip the medication slowly is not necessary for the administration of iron supplements. D: Having the patient drink the medication undiluted from the unit-dose cup increases the risk of teeth staining.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because local anesthetics are usually made available as salts due to their greater water solubility and stability. Water-soluble salts are easier to dissolve and distribute in the body, enhancing their effectiveness. Additionally, the stability of salts ensures a longer shelf life and reduces the risk of degradation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because local anesthetics as salts do not necessarily lead to less toxicity, higher stability, greater lipid solubility, less local tissue damage, or more potency.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Physostigmine is the correct answer as it is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor. This means it binds to the enzyme temporarily and can be easily displaced, allowing the enzyme to function normally after a while. Physostigmine is commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma and myasthenia gravis. A: Isoflurophate is an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor, meaning it forms a permanent bond with the enzyme. B: Carbochol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist, not a cholinesterase inhibitor. D: Parathion is an organophosphate insecticide that irreversibly inhibits cholinesterase enzymes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trimethaphane. Trimethaphane is a short-acting ganglion blocker because it acts quickly to block ganglionic transmission, leading to a rapid onset of action. Homatropine is a muscarinic antagonist used for its anticholinergic effects, not as a ganglion blocker. Hexamethonium is a ganglion blocker, but it is long-acting, not short-acting. Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocker used for skeletal muscle paralysis, not for ganglionic blockade. Therefore, the correct choice is Trimethaphane due to its fast-acting nature in blocking ganglionic transmission.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is a direct-acting alpha-1 and beta-1 receptor agonist. It stimulates both alpha and beta receptors directly, leading to vasoconstriction (via alpha-1) and increased heart rate and contractility (via beta-1). Methoxamine (B) is a selective alpha-1 agonist, Isoproterenol (C) is a non-selective beta agonist, and Ephedrine (D) is a mixed-acting sympathomimetic drug with indirect effects. Therefore, norepinephrine is the only choice that directly acts on both alpha and beta receptors.