The nurse is administering insulin lispro (Humalog) and will keep in mind that this insulin will start to have an effect within which time frame?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (15 minutes) because insulin lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin that typically starts to have an effect within 15 minutes of administration. This rapid onset of action is essential for managing postprandial glucose levels. Insulin lispro is designed to mimic the body's natural insulin response to food intake, ensuring timely glucose regulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest longer onset times, which do not align with the rapid action profile of insulin lispro. Waiting 1 to 2 hours, 80 minutes, or 3 to 5 hours for insulin lispro to take effect would be inaccurate and potentially dangerous in managing blood glucose levels effectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer intravenous glucose (50% dextrose). In this scenario, the patient is unconscious due to severe hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to raise blood glucose levels rapidly. Oral glucose would be ineffective as the patient is unconscious and cannot swallow. Intravenous glucose is the fastest way to raise blood sugar levels and is crucial in this emergent situation. Fruit juice or crackers would be too slow and unreliable in this critical state. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously is the most appropriate action to quickly address the hypoglycemia and potentially save the patient's life.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased carbohydrate utilization. Growth hormone primarily promotes lipolysis, leading to increased fat utilization and protein synthesis. It also induces insulin resistance, resulting in glucose intolerance. However, growth hormone does not directly increase carbohydrate utilization. Therefore, choice C is the exception among the actions of growth hormone.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for correct answer C: Somatostatin is used to treat bleeding esophageal varices by reducing portal pressure, inhibiting vasodilation, and decreasing blood flow to the varices. This helps in preventing further bleeding episodes and stabilizing the condition. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Macroprolactinoma is usually treated with dopamine agonists, not somatostatin. B: Zollinger Ellison syndrome is treated with proton pump inhibitors or H2 blockers, not somatostatin. D: Steatorrhoea is not typically treated with somatostatin; it is usually managed with dietary modifications or pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dopamine D2 agonism. Bromocriptine is a dopamine D2 receptor agonist, meaning it activates D2 receptors. This leads to inhibiting prolactin secretion, making it a treatment for hyperprolactinemia. Dopamine D2 antagonism (B) would have the opposite effect. Dopamine D1 antagonism (C) is not a prominent action of bromocriptine. α adrenergic antagonism (D) is not related to the mechanism of action of bromocriptine.