Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3 minutes. After administering the first eye drop, waiting for 3 minutes before instilling the second medication allows for proper absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This interval prevents dilution or interaction between the medications. Option A (30 seconds) is too short, not allowing sufficient time for absorption. Option B (1 minute) is also inadequate for proper absorption. Option D (5 minutes) is unnecessarily long and may lead to patient discomfort or inconvenience.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient has a history of hypertension. Hypertension is a risk factor for erectile dysfunction as it can lead to reduced blood flow to the penis, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. High blood pressure can damage blood vessels and affect the circulation necessary for an erection. Other choices are less likely to directly contribute to erectile dysfunction. A: UTI treatment is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction. C: Age alone is not a direct cause of erectile dysfunction, although it can increase the risk. D: While a sedentary lifestyle can impact overall health, it is less likely to directly cause erectile dysfunction compared to hypertension.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document the variance in the patient’s record. By documenting the variance in the patient's record, the nurse can provide a clear record of the deviation from the critical pathway. This documentation is essential for tracking the patient's progress accurately and identifying potential issues that may require intervention. It allows for proper communication among the interdisciplinary team and ensures that everyone is aware of the deviation. Choice A is incorrect because adding data to the problem list may not provide a comprehensive record of the variance. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on charting using the DAR format does not address the deviation from the critical pathway. Choice D is incorrect because reporting a positive variance in the next team meeting may not accurately reflect the patient's actual progress and may lead to miscommunication within the team.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative surgery. In this scenario, the patient's colon cancer has already progressed to stage IV with metastasis to the liver, indicating an advanced and incurable condition. Palliative surgery aims to alleviate symptoms, improve quality of life, and prolong survival without aiming for a cure. Reconstructive surgery (B) is typically done to restore form or function, which is not the primary goal in this case. Salvage surgery (C) is usually performed to rescue a situation where initial treatment has failed, which is not the case here. Prophylactic surgery (D) is preventive and is not appropriate in a situation where cancer is already present and advanced.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Prone position post retinal detachment repair helps the gas bubble or silicone oil stay against the retina to support healing. 2. This position prevents the bubble/oil from moving and causing further detachment. 3. Repositioning can jeopardize the surgical repair and lead to complications. 4. Calling the physician (A) is unnecessary as the order is clear. 5. Instructing the patient to prevent bleeding (C) is not related to the positioning after retinal detachment repair. 6. Repositioning after the first dressing change (D) contradicts the initial order and risks complications.