ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma. After instilling the patients first medication, how long should the nurse wait before instilling the patients second medication into the same eye?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3 minutes. After administering the first eye drop, waiting for 3 minutes before instilling the second medication allows for proper absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This interval prevents dilution or interaction between the medications. Option A (30 seconds) is too short, not allowing sufficient time for absorption. Option B (1 minute) is also inadequate for proper absorption. Option D (5 minutes) is unnecessarily long and may lead to patient discomfort or inconvenience.
Question 2 of 9
A patient diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma has arrived on the neurologic unit. When planning the patients care, the nurse should be aware that the effects of the tumor will primarily depend on what variable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The specific hormones secreted by the tumor. Pituitary adenomas are known to secrete hormones that can lead to various endocrine disorders. Understanding the specific hormones secreted by the tumor is crucial in determining the clinical manifestations and planning appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary determinant of the effects of the tumor in this case is the hormonal activity rather than whether the tumor uses aerobic or anaerobic respiration, the patient's pre-existing health status, or whether the tumor is primary or metastatic.
Question 3 of 9
Which intrapartal assessment should be avoided when caring for a patient with HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abdominal palpation. Palpating the abdomen can potentially cause rupture of the liver in patients with HELLP syndrome due to increased risk of liver hematoma. This can lead to severe bleeding and compromise the patient's condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes (C), auscultation of the heart and lungs (D), and venous sample of blood (B) are safe assessments that do not pose a risk of exacerbating the patient's condition. It is crucial to prioritize patient safety and avoid interventions that can harm the patient, making avoiding abdominal palpation the correct choice in caring for a patient with HELLP syndrome.
Question 4 of 9
A woman scheduled for a simple mastectomy in one week is having her preoperative education provided by the clinic nurse. What educational intervention will be of primary importance to prevent hemorrhage in the postoperative period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop taking aspirin. Aspirin is a blood thinner that can increase the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. By stopping aspirin before surgery, the woman's blood clotting ability will improve, reducing the risk of hemorrhage. A: Limiting intake of green leafy vegetables is not directly related to preventing hemorrhage in the postoperative period. B: Increasing water intake is important for overall health, but it does not specifically address the risk of hemorrhage related to aspirin use. D: Having nothing by mouth for 6 hours before surgery is important for preventing aspiration during anesthesia, but it does not directly address the risk of hemorrhage related to aspirin use.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is preparing to document a patient whohas chest pain. Which information is critical for the nurse to include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because documenting the patient's pain intensity using a pain scale (8 out of 10) is crucial for assessing the severity of the chest pain. This information helps in determining the appropriate intervention and monitoring the effectiveness of treatment. Choice A is irrelevant as it does not provide any useful information about the patient's condition. Choice B is important for neurological assessment but not specifically related to chest pain. Choice C is not as critical as knowing the current pain level.
Question 6 of 9
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with Parkinsons disease is undergoing a swallowing assessment because she has recently developed adventitious lung sounds. The patients nutritional needs should be met by what method?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Semisolid food with thick liquids. Patients with Parkinson's disease often have dysphagia, leading to aspiration and respiratory complications. Semisolid food with thick liquids helps prevent aspiration and promotes safer swallowing. TPN (A) is not necessary for meeting nutritional needs unless the patient cannot tolerate oral intake. A low-residue diet (B) may not address the specific swallowing issues in Parkinson's disease. Minced foods and fluid restriction (D) may not provide adequate nutrition and hydration.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy” abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's symptoms of crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage with odor, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, low blood pressure, and irregular pulse suggest an infection. The history of recent miscarriage raises suspicion for retained products of conception leading to infection. Ectopic pregnancy (choice A) would present with different symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (choice C) typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and high levels of hCG. Endometriosis (choice D) is a chronic condition and not related to the acute symptoms described. In summary, the clinical presentation aligns with uterine infection given the patient's history, symptoms, and vital signs.
Question 9 of 9
A 6-month-old infant is brought to the ED by his parents for inconsolable crying and pulling at his right ear. When assessing this infant, the advanced practice nurse is aware that the tympanic membrane should be what color in a healthy ear?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink. In a healthy ear, the tympanic membrane should appear pink due to the rich blood supply. This color indicates good vascularization and normal functioning of the ear. Yellowish-white (choice A), gray (choice C), and bluish-white (choice D) are incorrect because they do not reflect the normal color of a healthy tympanic membrane. Yellowish-white may indicate fluid behind the eardrum, gray may suggest infection or inflammation, and bluish-white could indicate poor blood flow or trauma. Therefore, the pink color of the tympanic membrane is the most appropriate and indicative of a healthy ear in this case.