ATI RN
Professional Nursing Concepts and Challenges Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse instructs a client about the medication nifedipine (Procardia) for hypertension. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Swelling of the ankles (edema) is a common side effect of nifedipine (Procardia), especially when starting the medication. However, it is important for the client to understand that while edema is a known side effect, it is not considered normal and should be monitored. The client should report any significant or concerning swelling to their healthcare provider. Options B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of the medication and its management.
Question 2 of 9
Which is believed to be the cause of preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, most often the liver and kidneys. Placental dysfunction is believed to be the main cause of preeclampsia. In a normal pregnancy, blood vessels in the placenta develop to supply the fetus with nutrients and oxygen. In preeclampsia, these blood vessels don't develop or function properly, leading to inadequate blood flow and reduced supply of nutrients to the placenta. This can result in high blood pressure and affect the function of other organs.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client during labor and delivery. Which condition should the nurse recognize as a risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placental abruption is the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition is a significant risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) because the sudden detachment can lead to massive internal bleeding. The release of large amounts of tissue factor from the placenta into the maternal circulation triggers widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This uncontrolled activation of the clotting system can result in both excessive clot formation and bleeding, characteristic of DIC. Gestational diabetes, polyhydramnios, and placenta previa are not direct risk factors for DIC.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a patient with an acute attack of gout. Which laboratory value should the nurse expect to be increased?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with an acute attack of gout, the nurse should expect the uric acid level to be increased. Gout occurs due to the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring the uric acid level is important in diagnosing and managing gout, as elevated levels indicate an increased risk of crystal formation and gout attacks. Therefore, an increased uric acid level is a key laboratory finding in patients experiencing gout flares.
Question 5 of 9
A client admitted with the diagnosis of cardiomyopathy becomes short of breath with ambulation and eating and fatigued with routine care activities. Which nursing diagnosis does the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Activity intolerance is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with cardiomyopathy who becomes short of breath with ambulation and eating and fatigued with routine care activities. Cardiomyopathy is a condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened, affecting its ability to pump blood effectively. As a result, the client may experience symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and decreased tolerance for physical activity. By identifying activity intolerance as a nursing diagnosis, the nurse can focus on addressing the client's limitations in performing activities and developing a plan of care to help improve the client's endurance and functional ability.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a child born with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). Which statement should the nurse include in her teaching regarding this defect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) involves four cardiac defects, as described in option B: pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, and an overriding aorta. These four defects result in mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood in the heart, leading to decreased oxygen levels in the blood that is pumped to the body. This characteristic results in cyanosis (blue discoloration of the skin). Providing accurate information about the specific defects involved in TOF helps parents understand the complexity and potential complications associated with their child's condition. This knowledge can aid in their ability to recognize symptoms and seek timely medical intervention when needed.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with inflammatory bowel disease is prescribed sulfasalazine (Azulfidine). What should the nurse teach the patient about taking this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sulfasalazine can cause photosensitivity, making the patient more prone to sunburn. Therefore, it is important for patients taking sulfasalazine to use sunscreen to protect their skin from harmful UV rays. This can help prevent sunburn and skin damage while on the medication. It is not necessary to take vitamin C with this drug, take it on an empty stomach, or limit fluid intake to 1500 mL per day.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is instructing the spouse of a client with a stroke on how to do passive range-of- motion exercises to the affected limbs. Which rationale for this intervention will the nurse include in the teaching session?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Passive range-of-motion exercises are beneficial in maintaining joint flexibility in clients with stroke. These exercises involve moving the client's limbs through a full range of motion, which helps prevent joint contractures and stiffness. Joint flexibility is crucial for maintaining mobility and preventing secondary complications such as pressure ulcers. While passive range-of-motion exercises may indirectly impact muscle strength, cardiorespiratory function, and endurance, the primary rationale for this intervention is to maintain joint flexibility.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse identifies that a patient with immobility is at risk for the development of urolithiasis. What should the nurse include when planning this patient’s care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Immobility can contribute to the development of urolithiasis (the formation of urinary calculi or stones) due to decreased mobility leading to stagnant urine flow, which can result in the concentration of crystal-forming substances in the urine. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent urinary stasis and dilutes the urine, reducing the risk of stone formation. Adequate hydration can also help flush out any existing crystals or small stones before they grow larger. Therefore, increasing fluid intake to 3000 mL/day is essential in preventing urolithiasis in patients with immobility. Monitoring urine pH, administering calcium supplements, or maintaining an indwelling urinary catheter are not appropriate interventions for preventing urolithiasis in this situation.