ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse, in assessing the adequacy of a client's fluid replacement during the first 2 to 3 days following full- thickness burns to the trunk and right thigh, would be aware that the most significant data would be obtained from recording
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urinary output every hour. This is because assessing urinary output is crucial for monitoring fluid balance in burn patients. Adequate urine output indicates proper fluid replacement, while decreased output may indicate dehydration. Recording weights daily (choice A) may be important but not as immediate and specific as urinary output. Blood pressure every 15 minutes (choice B) is too frequent and not directly related to fluid replacement in this context. Monitoring peripheral edema every 4 hours (choice D) is not as reliable as urinary output for assessing fluid status.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting the interview in a quiet environment, such as the waiting area with the television turned off, minimizes background noise and distractions for a patient with a hearing deficit. This setting allows for better communication and ensures that the patient can hear and understand the nurse clearly. A: Conducting the interview in the patient's room with the door closed may still have background noise from the hallway or other rooms. C: Conducting the interview before administration of pain medication is not relevant to improving communication for a patient with a hearing deficit. D: Conducting the interview in the waiting room while the occupational therapist is working on leg exercises introduces additional noise and distractions, making it difficult for the patient to focus on the conversation.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following types of care plans is most likely to enable the nurse to take a holistic view of the client’s situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Concept map care plan. This type of care plan allows the nurse to visually represent the client's entire situation, including physical, emotional, and social aspects. By using interconnected concepts and relationships, the nurse can see the whole picture and identify potential interventions. Kardex (A) is a concise patient information summary, not comprehensive. Case management (B) focuses on coordinating services but may not capture the holistic view. Critical pathways (C) outline specific steps in care but may not address the client as a whole.
Question 4 of 9
A client metastatic ovarian cancer is prescribed cisplatin (Platinol). Before administering the first dose, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history for drugs that may interact with cisplatin. Which drug may cause significant interactions when given concomitantly with cisplatin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin or amikacin, can interact with cisplatin by increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Both cisplatin and aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage, and when used together, the risk of kidney toxicity is significantly increased. This interaction is due to the additive effects on the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function closely and adjust the dosages of these drugs accordingly to prevent severe adverse effects. Summary: A: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is not known to have significant interactions with cisplatin. B: A cephalosporin - Cephalosporins do not typically interact with cisplatin in a clinically significant manner. C: A tetracycline - Tetracyclines are not known to cause significant interactions with
Question 5 of 9
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. The risk of ovarian cancer increases with age and nulliparity (never having been pregnant) is a significant risk factor. The older a woman gets without having been pregnant, the higher her risk of developing ovarian cancer. The other choices do not have as high of a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice A, a 30-year old woman taking contraceptives, actually reduces the risk of ovarian cancer. Choice C, a 40-year old woman with three children, and choice D, a 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22, both have lower risk factors compared to choice B.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse, in assessing the adequacy of a client's fluid replacement during the first 2 to 3 days following full- thickness burns to the trunk and right thigh, would be aware that the most significant data would be obtained from recording
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urinary output every hour. This is because assessing urinary output is crucial for monitoring fluid balance in burn patients. Adequate urine output indicates proper fluid replacement, while decreased output may indicate dehydration. Recording weights daily (choice A) may be important but not as immediate and specific as urinary output. Blood pressure every 15 minutes (choice B) is too frequent and not directly related to fluid replacement in this context. Monitoring peripheral edema every 4 hours (choice D) is not as reliable as urinary output for assessing fluid status.
Question 7 of 9
Hemodynamic monitoring by means of a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about preload, afterload, and cardiac output. Preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole, afterload is the resistance the heart has to overcome to eject blood, and cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. This catheter allows for direct measurement of these parameters by monitoring pressures in the pulmonary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they do not encompass the full range of information that can be obtained with a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting the interview in a quiet environment, like the waiting area with the television turned off, reduces background noise and distractions for the patient with a hearing deficit. This allows for better communication and understanding. A: Conducting the interview in the patient's room with the door closed may still have distractions or noise from outside the room. C: Conducting the interview in the patient's room before administration of pain medication does not address the issue of reducing background noise for better communication. D: Conducting the interview in the waiting room while the occupational therapist is working on leg exercises introduces additional distractions and noise, making it harder for the patient with a hearing deficit to communicate effectively.
Question 9 of 9
Of the following types of nursing diagnoses, which one is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actual nursing diagnosis. An actual nursing diagnosis is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics, which are signs and symptoms that support the diagnosis. This helps to differentiate it from other types of diagnoses such as risk, possible, or wellness diagnoses. Risk nursing diagnoses predict potential problems, possible nursing diagnoses lack sufficient data for validation, and wellness diagnoses focus on promoting health rather than addressing current health issues. Therefore, only the actual nursing diagnosis is confirmed by the presence of observable defining characteristics.