ATI RN
Professional Nursing Concepts and Challenges Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse identifies that a patient with immobility is at risk for the development of urolithiasis. What should the nurse include when planning this patient’s care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Immobility can contribute to the development of urolithiasis (the formation of urinary calculi or stones) due to decreased mobility leading to stagnant urine flow, which can result in the concentration of crystal-forming substances in the urine. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent urinary stasis and dilutes the urine, reducing the risk of stone formation. Adequate hydration can also help flush out any existing crystals or small stones before they grow larger. Therefore, increasing fluid intake to 3000 mL/day is essential in preventing urolithiasis in patients with immobility. Monitoring urine pH, administering calcium supplements, or maintaining an indwelling urinary catheter are not appropriate interventions for preventing urolithiasis in this situation.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client during labor and delivery. Which condition should the nurse recognize as a risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placental abruption is the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition is a significant risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) because the sudden detachment can lead to massive internal bleeding. The release of large amounts of tissue factor from the placenta into the maternal circulation triggers widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This uncontrolled activation of the clotting system can result in both excessive clot formation and bleeding, characteristic of DIC. Gestational diabetes, polyhydramnios, and placenta previa are not direct risk factors for DIC.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a child born with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). Which statement should the nurse include in her teaching regarding this defect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) involves four cardiac defects, as described in option B: pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, and an overriding aorta. These four defects result in mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood in the heart, leading to decreased oxygen levels in the blood that is pumped to the body. This characteristic results in cyanosis (blue discoloration of the skin). Providing accurate information about the specific defects involved in TOF helps parents understand the complexity and potential complications associated with their child's condition. This knowledge can aid in their ability to recognize symptoms and seek timely medical intervention when needed.
Question 4 of 9
A client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse what types of exercise would improve the client's condition and overall health. Which type of exercise will the nurse include in the response to the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse would recommend low-impact exercises that promote circulation and improve overall health without overstressing the cardiovascular system. Yoga is a beneficial form of exercise for individuals with PVD because it involves gentle movements, controlled breathing, and mindfulness practices that can help improve flexibility, strength, and blood flow. Additionally, yoga can help reduce stress and improve relaxation, which can be beneficial for managing symptoms associated with PVD. Weight lifting and team sports may be too strenuous for individuals with PVD, and passive ROM exercises may not provide the cardiovascular benefits needed for this condition.
Question 5 of 9
A home health nurse is admitting a new client to the agency who was recently discharged from the hospital with a new diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis. What is the best way for the nurse to evaluate whether the client is able to set up and administer a nebulizer treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Direct observation of behavior is the best way for the nurse to evaluate whether the client is able to set up and administer a nebulizer treatment. By directly observing the client, the nurse can assess the client's understanding and ability in performing the necessary steps correctly and safely. This approach allows for real-time evaluation and correction if needed, ensuring that the client can effectively manage their nebulizer treatment at home. Written or oral descriptions may not accurately reflect the client's actual competency in performing the task, and relying on the client's self-report during a follow-up appointment may not provide a complete picture of their ability.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with gout asks, “Why is my blood being examined for uric acid?” How should the nurse respond to this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D, “A uric acid test is done to see if your gout medication is effective.” Uric acid is a waste product formed from the breakdown of purines, substances found in certain foods and also produced by the body. In conditions like gout, there is an abnormal accumulation of uric acid in the blood, leading to the formation of urate crystals in the joints, causing pain and inflammation. Monitoring uric acid levels helps in assessing the effectiveness of gout medications in lowering uric acid levels and preventing gout attacks. This test is essential for patients with gout to ensure that their treatment is working effectively and to prevent complications related to high uric acid levels like kidney stones and kidney damage.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for developing deep venous thrombosis (DVT)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client recovering from knee replacement surgery has the greatest risk for developing deep venous thrombosis (DVT). Knee replacement surgery is a major orthopedic procedure that involves prolonged immobility and disruption of the normal blood flow in the lower extremities, which increases the risk of developing DVT. Postoperative patients are at a higher risk for developing blood clots due to reduced mobility, surgical trauma, and alterations in blood flow. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to implement preventive measures to reduce the risk of DVT, such as early mobilization, compression stockings, and pharmacological prophylaxis.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a patient with an acute attack of gout. Which laboratory value should the nurse expect to be increased?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with an acute attack of gout, the nurse should expect the uric acid level to be increased. Gout occurs due to the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring the uric acid level is important in diagnosing and managing gout, as elevated levels indicate an increased risk of crystal formation and gout attacks. Therefore, an increased uric acid level is a key laboratory finding in patients experiencing gout flares.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is instructing the spouse of a client with a stroke on how to do passive range-of- motion exercises to the affected limbs. Which rationale for this intervention will the nurse include in the teaching session?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Passive range-of-motion exercises are beneficial in maintaining joint flexibility in clients with stroke. These exercises involve moving the client's limbs through a full range of motion, which helps prevent joint contractures and stiffness. Joint flexibility is crucial for maintaining mobility and preventing secondary complications such as pressure ulcers. While passive range-of-motion exercises may indirectly impact muscle strength, cardiorespiratory function, and endurance, the primary rationale for this intervention is to maintain joint flexibility.