ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse has given medication instruction to the client receiving phenyton (Dilantin). The nurse determines that the client has an adequate understanding if the client states that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." This is because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices, such as regular brushing and flossing, can help prevent or minimize this side effect. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is contraindicated while taking phenytoin as it can increase the risk of side effects and decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choice C is incorrect because medication doses should never be self-adjusted without consulting a healthcare provider, as this can lead to ineffective treatment or potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of the morning dose in relation to drawing a serum drug level is not relevant to the client's understanding of medication instructions and does not address the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia associated with phenytoin.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is documenting the progress of a client who has been recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in the evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it directly reflects the client's progress in physical activity, a key indicator of recovery post-myocardial infarction. Walking 500 meters without chest pain shows improved cardiovascular function and exercise tolerance. Vital signs and lab results from admission (A) are important for initial assessment but not for ongoing evaluation. Physician notes (C) may provide insights but do not directly measure the client's progress. Medications prescribed (D) are important but do not reflect the client's specific improvement in physical activity.
Question 3 of 5
A client in a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows signs of AIDS-related dementia. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion. In the late stage of AIDS, the client is at risk for neurological complications, including AIDS-related dementia due to decreased blood flow to the brain. This nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority as it directly addresses the client's impaired brain perfusion, which can lead to serious cognitive and functional deficits. Prioritizing this diagnosis ensures timely interventions to optimize cerebral blood flow and prevent further deterioration. Summary: A: Self-care deficient: Bathing/hygiene - important but not the highest priority compared to addressing neurological complications. B: Dysfunctional grieving - while emotional support is essential, it is not the priority when dealing with a life-threatening physiological issue. D: Risk for injury - while important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of the dementia in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is instructing a client with newly diagnosed hypoparathyroidism about the regimen used to treat this disorder. The nurse should state that the physician probably will prescribe daily supplements of calcium and:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin D. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. Vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines, thus aiding in maintaining normal calcium levels. It is often prescribed along with calcium supplements to support bone health and prevent complications. Folic acid (A) is not directly related to the treatment of hypoparathyroidism. Potassium (B) is not typically prescribed for this condition and can be harmful in high levels. Iron (D) is not directly involved in calcium metabolism and is not part of the standard treatment regimen for hypoparathyroidism.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse provides care for a client with deep partial-thickness burns. What could cause a reduced hematocrit (Hct) in this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Volume overload with hemodilution. In deep partial-thickness burns, there can be fluid shifts leading to volume overload. This excess fluid in the intravascular space can dilute the blood, resulting in a decreased hematocrit (Hct). Reduced Hct indicates lower concentration of red blood cells in the blood. Other choices are incorrect because hypoalbuminemia would lead to hemoconcentration, metabolic acidosis would not directly cause a reduced Hct, and lack of erythropoietin factor would primarily affect erythropoiesis but not directly lead to decreased Hct.
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