ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient. In which of the following would this be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: In an individual who is severely dehydrated. Decreased skin turgor is a clinical sign of dehydration, indicating loss of skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Severe dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor as the skin loses its ability to recoil when pinched. In cases of severe obesity (choice A), skin turgor is usually normal or increased due to excess adipose tissue. During childhood growth spurts (choice B), skin turgor is typically unaffected. Connective tissue disorders like scleroderma (choice D) can lead to changes in skin texture and appearance, but not necessarily decreased skin turgor.
Question 2 of 9
While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a great deal of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse would want to ask about the number of ear infections the baby has had since birth because aspirin exposure during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of developing Reye's syndrome, which can lead to recurrent ear infections. This question helps assess the baby's risk for complications related to aspirin exposure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the potential complications associated with aspirin exposure during pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
An ophthalmic examination reveals papilledema. The nurse is aware that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure in the brain. It is a sign of serious conditions like brain tumors, head trauma, or hydrocephalus. The other choices are incorrect because retinal detachment presents with visual disturbances and floaters (A), diabetic retinopathy with retinal damage due to diabetes (B), and acute-angle glaucoma with sudden eye pain and blurred vision (C). Papilledema specifically indicates increased intracranial pressure, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 4 of 9
A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 7-year-old child who has the following symptoms: chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage. The nurse notes the presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows under the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids. These findings are characteristic of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: allergies. The symptoms described such as chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage are classic signs of allergies. The presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows under the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids are typical physical exam findings in children with allergic rhinitis. These signs are known as Dennie-Morgan lines, allergic shiners, and allergic crease respectively. Allergies are the most likely cause based on the symptoms and physical exam findings. Sinus infection (choice B) typically presents with purulent nasal discharge and facial pain. Nasal congestion (choice C) usually involves nasal stuffiness and may not present with the specific eye findings mentioned. An upper respiratory infection (choice D) may present with fever, cough, and nasal discharge, but the eye findings described are not characteristic of an upper respiratory infection.
Question 6 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 7 of 9
A mother is concerned that her 18-month-old already has 12 teeth. She is wondering if this is normal for a child of this age. The nurse's best response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. At 18 months, it is expected for a child to have erupted around 16 deciduous teeth. The rationale for this answer is based on dental development milestones. By age 3, most children should have their full set of 20 primary teeth. Therefore, the nurse should inform the mother that it is normal for an 18-month-old to have around 16 teeth. Choice A is incorrect as comparing the mother's teeth at that age is irrelevant to the child's dental development. Choice B is incorrect because all 20 deciduous teeth should be present by age 3, not 4. Choice C is incorrect as having 12 teeth at 18 months is below the expected number of erupted teeth for that age.
Question 8 of 9
During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse would expect to find:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased ability to identify odors. As people age, their sense of smell tends to decline due to changes in the olfactory system. This is a common phenomenon in older adults and can impact their overall quality of life. The other choices are incorrect because hypertrophy of the gums (A) is not a typical finding in older adults, increased production of saliva (B) is not directly related to aging, and finer and less prominent nasal hair (D) is not a definitive characteristic of older age.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following findings during examination would indicate Paget's disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elongated head with heavy eyebrow ridge. Paget's disease is a bone disorder characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged and deformed bones. The elongated head and heavy eyebrow ridge are typical features seen in individuals with Paget's disease due to overgrowth of bones in the skull. A: Positive MacEwen's sign - This finding is associated with congenital hip dysplasia, not Paget's disease. B: Premature closure of the sagittal suture - This is a characteristic finding in craniosynostosis, not Paget's disease. C: Headache, vertigo, tinnitus, and deafness - These symptoms are more indicative of an inner ear disorder or vestibular dysfunction, not Paget's disease.