ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient. In which of the following would this be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: In an individual who is severely dehydrated. Decreased skin turgor is a clinical sign of dehydration, indicating loss of skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Severe dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor as the skin loses its ability to recoil when pinched. In cases of severe obesity (choice A), skin turgor is usually normal or increased due to excess adipose tissue. During childhood growth spurts (choice B), skin turgor is typically unaffected. Connective tissue disorders like scleroderma (choice D) can lead to changes in skin texture and appearance, but not necessarily decreased skin turgor.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse be most concerned about?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, an ulceration with rolled edges on the side of the tongue, as it could indicate a possible malignancy such as oral cancer. The presence of rolled edges is concerning for malignancy due to the irregularity in shape and potential for rapid growth. This finding should be promptly investigated to rule out cancer. A: A painful vesicle inside the cheek for 2 days is likely a benign condition such as a canker sore. B: The presence of moist, nontender Stenson's ducts is a normal finding in the mouth. C: Stippled gingival margins that adhere snugly to the teeth could indicate a healthy gum tissue attachment. In summary, the other choices are less concerning as they are either benign or normal variations, while the presence of an ulceration with rolled edges raises significant suspicion for malignancy.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse notices that a patient's submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the nurse would assess the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: supraclavicular area. Enlarged submental lymph nodes can indicate a systemic issue. Assessing the supraclavicular area is important as it contains Virchow's node, which may indicate malignancy or metastasis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically target the area most likely to reveal significant findings related to the enlarged submental lymph nodes.
Question 4 of 9
A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.
Question 5 of 9
During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse would expect to find:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased ability to identify odors. As people age, their sense of smell tends to decline due to changes in the olfactory system. This is a common phenomenon in older adults and can impact their overall quality of life. The other choices are incorrect because hypertrophy of the gums (A) is not a typical finding in older adults, increased production of saliva (B) is not directly related to aging, and finer and less prominent nasal hair (D) is not a definitive characteristic of older age.
Question 6 of 9
While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a great deal of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse would want to ask about the number of ear infections the baby has had since birth because aspirin exposure during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of developing Reye's syndrome, which can lead to recurrent ear infections. This question helps assess the baby's risk for complications related to aspirin exposure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the potential complications associated with aspirin exposure during pregnancy.
Question 7 of 9
What would be a normal finding when assessing the lacrimal apparatus during an eye examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The presence of tears along the inner canthus. This is a normal finding during an eye examination as tears are produced by the lacrimal gland and drain into the nasolacrimal duct, which exits at the inner canthus. This indicates proper tear production and drainage. Incorrect choices: B: A blocked nasolacrimal duct in a newborn infant - This would present as excessive tearing and discharge. C: A slight swelling over the upper lid and along the bony orbit if the patient has a cold - This could indicate inflammation due to infection. D: The absence of drainage from the puncta when the inner orbital rim is pressed - This would suggest an issue with the lacrimal drainage system.
Question 8 of 9
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The nurse suspects damage to CN _____ and starts the examination by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (XI; asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance). This is the correct choice because the nurse suspects damage to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. Asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance tests the function of the trapezius muscle, which is innervated by CN XI. This examination helps to assess the integrity of the nerve and its ability to innervate the muscle. Palpating the anterior and posterior triangles (choice A) is not specific to CN XI function. Percussing the sternomastoid and submandibular neck muscles (choice C) is related to CN XII, not CN XI. Assessing for a positive Romberg's sign (choice D) is not relevant to testing the function of CN XI.
Question 9 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.