ATI RN
Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse frequently administers propranolol (Inderal) as treatment for what condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The beta-adrenergic blocking agents are used to treat cardiovascular problems (hypertension, angina, migraine headaches) and to prevent reinfarction after MI. The prototype drug, propranolol, was in fact the most prescribed drug in the country in the 1980s and is still considered a first-line drug. Propranolol does not prevent first MIs and it is not used for hypotension or cluster headaches. The nurse should understand the indications for propranolol to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 2 of 5
Myeloablation using chemotherapeutic agents is useful in cancer treatment because:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Myeloablation refers to the destruction of bone marrow, which is a critical step in preparing a patient for a bone marrow or stem cell transplant. This process eliminates both cancerous and healthy bone marrow cells, creating space for the transplanted cells to engraft and repopulate the marrow. While myeloablation can reduce tumor size, its primary purpose is to prepare the body for transplantation. It is not related to destroying muscle cells or reducing postoperative chemotherapy requirements.
Question 3 of 5
Combination chemotherapy is used in the treatment of cancer because:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Combination chemotherapy is used to target cancer cells through multiple mechanisms, reducing the likelihood of resistance. Single-agent therapy often leads to the development of resistant cell lines, as cancer cells can adapt to the drug. By using a combination of drugs with different mechanisms of action, the treatment can more effectively kill cancer cells and prevent resistance. While two drugs may increase efficacy, the primary rationale is to overcome resistance. Larger doses of single agents are not the main reason for combination therapy.
Question 4 of 5
An otherwise healthy 78-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 168/80 at a routine check, and similar pressures are confirmed on three separate occasions despite adhering to dietary advice. Investigations including an ECG and creatinine/electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Systolic hypertension (168 mmHg) in the elderly increases cardiovascular risk, despite normal diastolic (80 mmHg). Echo isn't first-line without organ damage signs (normal ECG). Reassurance ignores systolic risk; treatment is indicated (>160 mmHg). Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is less preferred initially due to hypotension risk. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is effective, but amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is most appropriate per guidelines (e.g., NICE) for isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly, offering vascular protection and tolerability. Its efficacy reduces stroke and MI risk, critical at this age.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following are antagonist and agonist pairs for the same receptor:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Butoxamine (β2 antagonist) and terbutaline (β2 agonist) target the same receptor, a true pair. Phenoxybenzamine (α-adrenergic antagonist) and cyclopentolate (muscarinic antagonist) act on different receptors. Pilocarpine and bethanechol are both muscarinic agonists, not antagonist-agonist. Oxymetazoline (α-agonist) and dobutamine (β1-agonist) differ in receptor specificity. Bromocriptine and pramipexole are dopamine agonists. The β2 pair is a classic example in pharmacology, illustrating receptor-specific antagonism and agonism.