The nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?

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Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: In HHNS, there is severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis. Step 2: Osmotic diuresis causes loss of potassium in urine, leading to hypokalemia. Step 3: Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in HHNS due to excessive urinary loss of potassium. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a below-normal serum potassium level in a client with HHNS. Summary: A: Elevated serum acetone level is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS. B: Serum alkalosis is not typically associated with HHNS. C: Serum ketone bodies are elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.

Question 2 of 9

The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetry. In the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions, A stands for asymmetry, which refers to whether one half of the lesion looks different from the other half. This is important because asymmetrical lesions are more likely to be cancerous. Actinic (choice A) refers to sun damage, Arcus (choice C) refers to a condition affecting the eyes, and Assessment (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically relate to the characteristics of skin lesions.

Question 3 of 9

Which client statement would indicate to the nurse that the client with polycythemia vera is in need further of instruction?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because using two pillows to raise the head can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombosis in a client with polycythemia vera. This condition involves an increased production of red blood cells, leading to thicker blood and potential clot formation. Elevating the head too much can impede blood flow, exacerbating the risk of clotting. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements indicating good self-care practices and physical activity, which are beneficial for clients with polycythemia vera to improve circulation and overall health.

Question 4 of 9

A client was brought to the school clinic wuth severe, constant, localized abdominal pain. Abdominal muscles are rigid, and rebound tenderness is present. Peritonitis is suspected. The client is hypotensive and tachycardic. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate to the client’s signs/symptoms is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.

Question 5 of 9

What is the primary purpose of the implementation step in the nursing process?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To carry out the plan of care. In the nursing process, implementation is the phase where nurses put the established care plan into action by delivering the interventions outlined to meet the client's needs. This step is crucial as it ensures that the care plan is executed effectively and efficiently. Establishing priorities (A) is done during the planning phase, identifying client outcomes (C) is part of the evaluation phase, and validating nursing diagnoses (D) is typically done during the assessment phase, not implementation.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the ff is an important nursing intervention for HIV positive clients?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Providing referral to support groups and resources for information is essential for HIV positive clients as it offers emotional support, education, and access to resources for managing the condition. Step 2: Support groups provide a safe space for clients to share experiences, seek advice, and reduce feelings of isolation. Step 3: Resources for information help clients stay informed about their condition, treatment options, and lifestyle modifications. Step 4: Referral to support groups and resources promotes holistic care and enhances the client's overall well-being. Summary: Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific needs of HIV positive clients and may even pose risks to their health. Option D is the most appropriate intervention as it focuses on comprehensive support and empowerment for clients.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the ff finding would confirm that a female client has mastitis? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because mastitis typically presents with swollen, firm, and hard breasts due to inflammation and infection of the breast tissue. This occurs as a result of milk stasis and bacterial infection. Option A is incorrect because a crack in the nipple or areola can be indicative of nipple trauma or infection, not necessarily mastitis. Option B is incorrect because multiple lumps within the breast tissue may suggest fibrocystic changes or breast cancer, but not specifically mastitis. Option D is incorrect because enlargement of the axillary lymph nodes is more commonly seen in breast cancer, not mastitis.

Question 8 of 9

The patient is being discharged on furosemide (Lasix). The nurse evaluates the patient as understanding her medication teaching if she states that she will have which of the ff. laboratory tests monitored as ordered?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will have my potassium level checked." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. A: Monitoring urine sodium is not typically necessary for furosemide therapy. B: Prothrombin time monitoring is unrelated to furosemide therapy. C: Monitoring calcium levels is not directly affected by furosemide use. In summary, monitoring potassium levels is essential due to the potential for hypokalemia with furosemide, while the other options are not directly relevant to this medication.

Question 9 of 9

A resident of a long-term care facility refuses to eat until she has had her hair combed and her make-up applied. In this case, what client need should have priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The need to feel good about oneself. This is the priority because the resident's refusal to eat is tied to her desire to maintain her personal appearance and feel good about herself. By addressing this need first, the resident may become more willing to eat. The other choices are incorrect because while nutrition (A) is important, addressing the resident's self-esteem and well-being should come first. The need to live in a safe environment (C) is also important but not the priority in this specific scenario. The need for love from others (D) is significant but not directly related to the resident's refusal to eat based on her personal grooming preferences.

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