The nurse encourages a client with an immunologic disorder to eat a nutritionally balanced diet to promote optimal immunologic function. Autoimmunity has been linked to excessive ingestion of:

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Question 1 of 9

The nurse encourages a client with an immunologic disorder to eat a nutritionally balanced diet to promote optimal immunologic function. Autoimmunity has been linked to excessive ingestion of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fat. Excessive ingestion of fat has been linked to autoimmunity due to its potential to trigger inflammation in the body, which can disrupt the immune system's balance and lead to autoimmune responses. High-fat diets have been associated with increased production of pro-inflammatory molecules, impacting immune function negatively. Protein (choice A) is essential for immune function, vitamin A (choice B) supports immune responses, and zinc (choice D) is crucial for immune system regulation. However, excessive intake of these nutrients typically does not directly lead to autoimmunity like excessive fat consumption does.

Question 2 of 9

There are several risk factors with developing cancer. The following are risk factors of cancer, except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because ordinal petition in the family is not a recognized risk factor for developing cancer. Age is a well-known risk factor as cancer incidence increases with age. Race can also influence cancer risk due to genetic and environmental factors. Lifestyle choices such as smoking, diet, and physical activity can significantly impact the likelihood of developing cancer. In contrast, ordinal petition in the family does not have a direct association with cancer risk.

Question 3 of 9

The majority of lumbar disc herniations occur at the level of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: L4-L5. This is because the L4-L5 intervertebral disc segment experiences the highest amount of mechanical stress and mobility in the lumbar spine, making it more prone to herniation. Additionally, nerve roots at this level innervate the lower extremities, making it a common site for symptoms such as sciatica. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because herniations at those levels are less common due to lower mechanical stress and mobility compared to L4-L5.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following parts of neuron transmits impulses away from the cell body?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Axon. The axon is the part of the neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons, muscles, or glands. Its structure allows for the rapid transmission of electrical signals. Rationale: 1. Dendrites receive signals and transmit them towards the cell body, so A is incorrect. 2. Neurolemma is the outermost layer of a Schwann cell, not a part of the neuron responsible for transmitting impulses, so B is incorrect. 3. The synapse is the junction between two neurons where communication occurs, not a part of the neuron transmitting impulses, so D is incorrect.

Question 5 of 9

A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect. The anesthesiologist should monitor the client for this adverse reaction. Muscle rigidity and spasms are common with ketamine administration and can affect the client's comfort and safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to promptly address any signs of muscle rigidity or spasms to prevent complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Hiccups - Ketamine can cause hiccups, but it is not the primary side effect to monitor for in this scenario. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine does not typically cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine is known for its minimal effect on respiratory depression compared to other anesthetics. Monitoring respiratory depression is still important, but not the primary concern with ketamine administration in this case.

Question 6 of 9

Why is heart biopsy performed throughout a clients lifetime after heart transplantation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To detect rejection. After heart transplantation, heart biopsy is performed to monitor for rejection, a common complication. Tissue samples are examined for signs of rejection, such as inflammation. This is crucial for timely intervention to prevent rejection-related complications. Other choices are incorrect: B: Heart functionality is typically assessed through imaging tests like echocardiograms, not biopsy. C: Heart rate monitoring can be done through non-invasive methods like electrocardiograms, not biopsy. D: Checking for heart tumors is not a primary purpose of heart biopsy post-transplantation.

Question 7 of 9

How many drops per minute should be delivered?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 17 drops per minute. To calculate the correct drip rate, you need to use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in minutes) x Drop factor. In this case, if the volume to be infused is 100 mL and the time is 60 minutes with a drop factor of 20, the calculation would be: (100 / 60) x 20 = 33.33 drops per minute. Since we cannot deliver fractional drops, the closest whole number is 17 drops per minute. This ensures the correct delivery rate for the medication. Choice A (6 drops per minute) is incorrect as it would be too slow and may not deliver the medication effectively. Choice C (50 drops per minute) and Choice D (100 drops per minute) are incorrect as they would both deliver the medication too quickly, potentially causing harm to the patient. The correct answer, 17 drops per minute, ensures a safe and accurate delivery rate

Question 8 of 9

A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone indicates apprehension about discharge. This inference is supported by the subjective data provided. Choice A is incorrect because fear of being alone does not necessarily mean the patient can perform dressing changes independently. Choice B is incorrect as resuming all previous medications is not related to the patient's fear of going home. Choice D is incorrect as the subjective data does not provide any information about the success of the surgery.

Question 9 of 9

A pregnant client requires immediate but temporary protection from chickenpox. Which type of immunization would be required?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Passive immunization. This involves administering pre-formed antibodies to provide immediate protection. In the case of a pregnant client needing temporary protection from chickenpox, passive immunization is necessary as it offers immediate immunity without stimulating the client's immune system. - A (Naturally acquired active immunization): This involves exposure to the pathogen and the body producing its antibodies, which takes time and is not suitable for immediate protection. - B (Artificially acquired passive immunization): This option doesn't involve providing pre-formed antibodies, which are needed for immediate protection. - C (Artificially acquired active immunization): This method requires time for the body to develop its immunity, not providing immediate protection as needed in this scenario.

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