ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant amounts of heme iron or other iron-rich foods that would be beneficial in managing iron deficiency anemia. Cheese pizza, scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast, corn flakes, and whole wheat toast do not provide the necessary heme iron needed to address the client's condition.
Question 2 of 9
What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred between ground and air ambulances. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) refer to medical units that provide medical support to large areas and are not specifically related to evacuation. TOE units (Choice B) and field hospitals (Choice D) are not typically established in response to threats to air resources affecting evacuation.
Question 3 of 9
Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by personnel ranked E6, E7, or E8 in the military structure. These individuals have the necessary experience and leadership skills to fulfill the responsibilities associated with these roles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because these positions are not specifically designated for Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 personnel in the military hierarchy.
Question 4 of 9
What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and conserve its fighting strength.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure the overall health and readiness of military personnel. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fully capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department. While providing physical examinations, healthcare in disaster areas, and education/training are important aspects, the central mission is to uphold the health and combat readiness of the Army.
Question 5 of 9
Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: E6, E7, or E8. Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by individuals at the E6, E7, or E8 pay grades in the military. These positions require a higher level of experience and leadership, which align with the ranks of E6, E7, or E8. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 are not the typical ranks that hold Clinical NCO positions.
Question 6 of 9
A client is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Dizziness' and 'Headache'. ACE inhibitors like lisinopril are known to cause these common side effects due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Choice A, 'Constipation', is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While constipation can be a side effect of some medications, it is not typically seen with ACE inhibitors. Therefore, options A and B are incorrect choices.
Question 7 of 9
What type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimize irritation to the digestive tract, allowing the inflamed diverticula to heal. High-fiber foods are usually avoided during flare-ups as they can exacerbate symptoms. Low-fat and high-protein diets are not specifically recommended for diverticulitis flare-ups. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The inappropriate action in collecting a midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis is to collect only 5 to 10 ml of urine. Adequate urine volume of 30 to 60 ml is required for accurate testing. Collecting a small amount like 5 to 10 ml may lead to inaccurate results due to insufficient sample size. It is crucial to follow proper collection techniques, such as discarding the first flow of urine, performing perineal care, and collecting an adequate volume, to ensure reliable test results.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is less urgent as occasional unifocal PVCs are common. Choice B is important but can be addressed after the client with an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable compared to a client with potential heart failure symptoms.