The nurse completes medication education for the client receiving antihistamines. The nurse evaluates that learning has occurred when the client makes which statement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antihistamines cause sedation. 'This medication could make me very sleepy' shows understanding, indicating effective education. Alcohol worsens sedation. Fluids aren't key. OTC doesn't mean safe. D ensures safety awareness, making it the best statement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A comprehensive drug history includes information about the patient's current and past medication use, including over-the-counter drugs, herbal supplements, and non-pharmacological pain relief methods. Asking, 'When you have pain, what do you do to relieve it?' provides insight into the patient's self-management strategies and helps identify potential drug interactions or misuse. While questions about sleeping pills, family history, and childhood diseases are relevant, they do not provide as much information about the patient's current medication practices. Therefore, focusing on pain relief methods is the most effective way to gather a detailed drug history.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Teaching a patient how to prepare an inhaler is an important step in proper medication administration. Shaking the inhaler for about 5 seconds before use helps to ensure that the medication is properly mixed and dispersed. This is especially important for metered-dose inhalers where the medication is dispersed as a fine spray. Priming the inhaler by shaking it helps ensure that the patient receives the correct dose of medication with each use.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An international normalized ratio (INR) level of 3 indicates that the patient's warfarin dose is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. In patients with mechanical heart valves, the target INR range is usually higher (around 2.5 to 3.5) to prevent thrombus formation on the prosthetic valve. An INR of 3 demonstrates that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is at an appropriate level to reduce the risk of blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. If the INR level was subtherapeutic (below the target range), it would indicate that the patient is not receiving enough warfarin to achieve the desired anticoagulant effect.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Propofol produces a faster and clearer recovery than thiopental sodium and is less irritant.