ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse cites evidence-based practice as a rationale for a patient care decision. What isthe best description of evidence-based practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of best available research data. Evidence-based practice involves integrating the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values to make informed decisions about patient care. It emphasizes using scientifically proven data to guide practice and improve patient outcomes. Expert legal testimony (A) is not necessarily evidence-based. Evolution of nursing practice over time (C) does not specifically focus on research data. Individual optimization of patient outcomes (D) is a goal of evidence-based practice, but it does not fully encompass the concept.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is preparing to measure the thermodilution cardaiabicrb o.cuomtp/tuest t (TdCO) in a patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which action by the nurse best ensures the safety of the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid infusing vasoactive agents in the port used to obtain the TdCO measurement. This action ensures patient safety by preventing the introduction of vasoactive agents directly into the bloodstream during the measurement process. Infusing vasoactive agents can lead to inaccurate TdCO readings and potentially harm the patient. Choice A is incorrect because zero referencing the transducer system at the level of the phlebostatic axis is important for accurate pressure monitoring but not directly related to TdCO measurement safety. Choice C is incorrect as maintaining a pressure of 300 mm Hg on the flush solution bag is not directly related to the safety of TdCO measurement. Choice D is incorrect as limiting the length of noncompliant pressure tubing is important for accurate pressure readings but not directly related to the safety of TdCO measurement.
Question 3 of 9
The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 100-kg patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, hear t rate 110 beats/min, respirations 36/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. Bilateral crackles are audible upon auscultation. Which hemodynamic value reqaubiirrbe.sco imm/temste diate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with signs of pulmonary congestion and hypoxemia, indicating possible cardiogenic pulmonary edema. As the cardiac output is a key indicator of how well the heart is functioning and delivering blood to the body, a low cardiac output can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, immediate action is required to address the low cardiac output to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of inadequate cardiac output in this patient. Cardiac index, pulmonary vascular resistance, and systemic vascular resistance are important parameters to monitor, but in this case, the priority is to address the low cardiac output to improve the patient's condition.
Question 5 of 9
assessment, the patient is restless, heart rate has increased to 110 beats/min, respirat ions are 36 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 156/98 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor shows sin us tachycardia with 10 premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) per minute. Pulmonary artery pressures are elevated. The nurse suctions the patient and obtains pink, frothy secretio ns. Loud crackles are audible throughout lung fields. The nurse notifies the physician, who orders an ABG analysis, electrolyte levels, and a portable chest x-ray study. In comambirubn.ciocma/tteinstg with the physician, which statement indicates the nurse understands what is likely occurring with the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “My assessment indicates potential fluid overload.” The patient is showing signs of fluid overload, such as increased heart rate, respiratory rate, elevated blood pressure, pulmonary artery pressures, frothy secretions, and crackles in lung fields. These symptoms suggest fluid is accumulating in the lungs, causing pulmonary congestion. This can lead to impaired gas exchange and respiratory distress. The nurse's recognition of these signs is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Other choices are incorrect because there are no indications of a myocardial infarction, PVCs compromising cardiac output, or a hypertensive crisis based on the given information.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with respiratory failure has arterial pressure-based cardiac output (APCO) monitoring and is receiving mechanical ventilation with peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 12 cm H2O. Which information indicates that a change in the ventilator settings may be required?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A decrease in the arterial pressure (hypotension) with a low diastolic pressure (46 mmHg) may indicate inadequate perfusion, possibly due to inadequate cardiac output from the mechanical ventilation. This suggests that a change in ventilator settings may be required to improve oxygenation and perfusion. Option B is incorrect because a heart rate of 58 beats/minute alone does not provide direct information on the patient's hemodynamic status. Option C is incorrect as an increased stroke volume would usually be a positive indicator; it does not necessarily indicate a need for changing the ventilator settings. Option D is incorrect as a stroke volume variation of 12% is within normal limits and does not necessarily require a change in ventilator settings.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Assessing how long the client has been taking clonidine is crucial as drowsiness is a common side effect that typically improves over time as the body adjusts to the medication. This information helps determine if the drowsiness is a temporary side effect or a more concerning issue. Choice A (constipation) is not directly related to drowsiness as a side effect of clonidine. Choice B (missed doses) may contribute to drowsiness but is not the primary assessment priority. Choice D (tobacco use) is not directly related to clonidine-induced drowsiness.
Question 8 of 9
Noninvasive diagnostic procedures used to determine kidney function include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray. This procedure is noninvasive and commonly used to assess kidney function by visualizing the size, shape, and position of the kidneys. Renal ultrasound is also noninvasive and can provide detailed images of the kidneys. However, MRI and IVP are more invasive procedures that involve the use of contrast agents and are not typically used solely for diagnostic purposes to assess kidney function. Overall, KUB x-ray and renal ultrasound are the preferred noninvasive options for evaluating kidney function.
Question 9 of 9
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus and influenza. Which categories of illness should the nurse develop goals for the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: One chronic and one acute illness. This is because Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a chronic condition, while influenza is an acute illness. The nurse should develop goals addressing the management and control of the chronic condition (diabetes) as well as the treatment and recovery from the acute illness (influenza). This approach ensures comprehensive care that considers both the long-term management of the chronic illness and the immediate needs related to the acute illness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the combination of chronic and acute illnesses presented in the scenario. Choice B focuses solely on two acute illnesses, which overlooks the ongoing management required for the chronic condition. Choice C combines an acute and an infectious illness, but fails to account for the chronic illness component. Choice D involves two chronic illnesses, neglecting the immediate care needed for the acute illness.