ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube un derstands that endotracheal suctioning is needed to facilitate removal of secretions. What additional information is the nurse aware of concerning this intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C: Endotracheal suctioning should be done as indicated by patient assessment because not all patients require routine suctioning. Performing unnecessary suctioning can lead to potential complications such as mucosal damage and increased risk of infection. Therefore, the nurse must assess the patient's respiratory status, auscultate lung sounds, monitor oxygen saturation levels, and observe for signs of increased secretions before deciding to perform suctioning. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Endotracheal suctioning does not directly impact intracranial pressure. It is primarily focused on maintaining airway patency and removing respiratory secretions. B: While endotracheal suctioning may temporarily suppress the cough reflex during the procedure, its primary purpose is to clear airway secretions to prevent complications such as atelectasis and respiratory distress. D: Saline instillation before suctioning is not recommended as it can lead to negative outcomes such as dehydration, mucosal damage, and increased risk of infection
Question 2 of 9
The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which patient has the highest priority for treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A patient with paradoxical chest movements. This indicates flail chest, a life-threatening condition where a segment of the chest wall moves independently from the rest. 1. Flail chest can lead to respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. 2. Immediate intervention is needed to stabilize the chest wall and support breathing. 3. Without prompt treatment, the patient can develop hypoxia and potentially progress to cardiac arrest. Summary: - Choice A: No pedal pulses may indicate vascular compromise but does not pose an immediate threat to life. - Choice B: Open femur fracture requires urgent treatment but does not have the same immediate life-threatening implications as flail chest. - Choice C: Bleeding facial lacerations can be managed after addressing more critical injuries like flail chest.
Question 3 of 9
During the primary survey of a patient with severe leg trauma, the nurse observes that the patient’s left pedal pulse is absent and the leg is swollen. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation. The nurse should prioritize assessing the cause of the absent left pedal pulse and leg swelling to address the severe leg trauma effectively. This step involves identifying potential vascular compromise or compartment syndrome, which are critical conditions requiring immediate intervention. Sending blood for a complete blood count (A) is not the priority in this situation. Finishing the primary survey (C) may delay addressing the circulation issue. Starting normal saline infusion (D) without addressing the circulation problem first could potentially worsen the condition. Therefore, assessing further for the cause of decreased circulation is the most appropriate next step to ensure timely and appropriate management of the patient's condition.
Question 4 of 9
The constant noise of a ventilator, monitor alarms, and inf usion pumps predisposes the patient to what form of stress?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sensory overload. Constant noise from medical equipment can overwhelm the patient's senses, leading to sensory overload. This can result in increased stress levels, difficulty concentrating, and overall discomfort. Anxiety (A) is related to worry and fear, but in this context, the primary stressor is sensory overload, not anxiety. Pain (B) is a physical sensation, not directly related to the sensory overload caused by noise. Powerlessness (C) refers to a lack of control or influence, which is not the primary form of stress induced by constant noise. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it directly correlates with the impact of the noise on the patient's sensory perception.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is preparing to obtain a right atrial pressure (RA P/CVP) reading. What are the most appropriate nursing actions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because comparing measured pressures with other physiological parameters ensures accuracy and consistency. This step helps in interpreting the RA P/CVP reading correctly. Choice B is incorrect as flushing the catheter with saline is not necessary for obtaining the pressure reading. Choice C is incorrect as inflating the balloon with air is not part of the correct procedure. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining the measurement during exhalation can affect the accuracy of the reading.
Question 6 of 9
What should a designated healthcare surrogate base healthcare decisions on?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the healthcare surrogate should base decisions on recommendations of the physician and healthcare team who have the expertise to provide medical advice. They are best positioned to understand the patient's condition and treatment options. Personal beliefs (A) may not align with medical best practices. Family and friends' recommendations (B) may not be informed by medical knowledge. Wishes previously expressed by the patient (D) are important but may need to be interpreted in the context of the current medical situation, which healthcare professionals can provide.
Question 7 of 9
After attending an educational program, the nurse understaanbidrbs.c othma/tte swt hich the following situations would require an ethics consultation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because the situation involves a patient with multiple trauma who is not responding to treatment and has no known family members. This indicates a complex ethical dilemma where the medical team may be unsure about the appropriate course of action. Step 2: In this scenario, an ethics consultation is necessary to help guide decision-making regarding the care of the patient. The lack of available family members complicates decision-making, and the consideration of care as futile adds another layer of complexity. Step 3: An ethics consultation can provide a structured framework for evaluating the situation, considering ethical principles such as beneficence, non-maleficence, autonomy, and justice. It can help the healthcare team navigate the ethical considerations and make a well-informed decision in the best interest of the patient. Summary: Choice A: While conflicts between the primary care provider and family may warrant discussions, the agreement on a treatment plan does not necessarily require an ethics consultation. Choice B: Disagreement
Question 8 of 9
The transplant clinic coordinator is evaluating relatives of a patient with end-stage renal disease, whose blood type is A positive, for suitability as aa bliirvb.icnogm /dteostn or for kidney transplantation. Which family member best qualifies for evaluation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the 70-year-old mother with blood type A positive. This choice is the best candidate for evaluation due to her blood type matching the patient's (A positive) for kidney transplantation. Age and medical history are also crucial factors in determining suitability. The 65-year-old brother (choice A) has hypertension, a significant risk factor. The 35-year-old female (choice B) with food allergies may have potential complications. The 14-year-old son (choice C) is underage and might not be a suitable donor due to age and the potential impact on his growth and development. In summary, choice D aligns with the matching blood type and age, making the mother the most suitable candidate for evaluation.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving continuous norepinephrine (Levophed) IV infusion. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a low Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) indicates inadequate perfusion, which may require adjusting the norepinephrine infusion rate to increase blood pressure. A: A heart rate of 58 beats/minute is within a normal range and may not necessarily indicate a need for adjustment. C: Elevated Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR) may be an expected response to norepinephrine and does not necessarily indicate a need for adjustment. D: A low Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP) may indicate fluid volume deficit but does not directly relate to the need for adjusting norepinephrine infusion rate.