The nurse at a family practice clinic is providing care to a 47-year-old obese patient. The patient states that she realizes that she has put on extra weight but is reluctant to go to any exercise classes. She states that she often has to cross her legs when she sneezes and cannot do any exercises with her legs crossed. The health care provider has prescribed tolterodine (Detrol). What is the rationale for this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tolterodine is used to improve the tone and tissue in the urethral and vaginal areas. This medication is prescribed to treat overactive bladders and to decrease urinary frequency, urgency, and urge incontinence. The patient's symptoms of having to cross her legs when sneezing and inability to do exercises with legs crossed indicate issues with urinary incontinence. Tolterodine works by relaxing the bladder muscles and improving bladder control, which addresses the patient's symptoms. Incorrect choices: A: Tolterodine is not an appetite suppressant and does not facilitate weight loss. C: Tolterodine does not act as an appetite suppressant, so it does not facilitate weight loss. D: Tolterodine does not improve blood flow to pelvic muscles or decrease urinary tract infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment for both the infected person and their partner to prevent reinfection. The recommended practice is to abstain from sex until 7 days after completing treatment to ensure the infection is fully cleared from both individuals. This approach helps to prevent the spread of the infection and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because simply finishing the medicine without waiting for the partner's treatment can lead to reinfection. Choice C is incorrect as it solely focuses on the partner's treatment without considering the completion of the patient's own treatment. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the importance of completing treatment and waiting for the specified period before resuming sexual activity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: clotrimazole (antifungal). VVC stands for vulvovaginal candidiasis, which is a fungal infection. Clotrimazole is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat VVC by inhibiting the growth of the fungus. Metronidazole (choice A) is an anti-protozoal agent used for parasitic infections, not fungal infections. Penicillin G (choice B) and ampicillin (choice D) are both antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like VVC. Therefore, the nurse would expect to teach the patient about using clotrimazole to treat VVC.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. In pyelonephritis, bacteria typically ascend from the lower urinary tract to the kidneys. E. coli is the most common cause due to its prevalence in the gastrointestinal tract and ability to cause urinary tract infections. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis are more commonly associated with sexually transmitted infections, not pyelonephritis. Candida albicans is a fungal infection and is not a common cause of pyelonephritis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: alcohol use of at least 2 drinks per day. Alcohol consumption has been consistently linked to an increased risk of breast cancer. Alcohol can raise estrogen levels in the body, thereby increasing the risk of developing breast cancer. Menarche at age 15 (choice A) is not a risk factor as early menarche is associated with a slightly decreased risk. Family history of diabetes (choice B) and history of three vaginal births by age 25 (choice D) are not directly linked to breast cancer risk.