ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice Exam B Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse assumes care of a patient in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). The patient had abdominal surgery and is receiving intravenous morphine sulfate for pain. The patient is asleep and has not voided since prior to surgery. The nurse assesses a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute and notes hypoactive bowel sounds. The nurse will contact the surgeon primarily to report which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most critical condition that the nurse should report to the surgeon in this scenario is respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of opioid medications such as morphine sulfate. It is characterized by a decreased respiratory rate, which in this case, is 10 breaths per minute, indicating inadequate ventilation. Respiratory depression can lead to hypoxia and respiratory arrest if not promptly addressed. The nurse should prioritize notifying the surgeon to ensure immediate intervention and appropriate monitoring to prevent further complications for the patient. While the other conditions (paralytic ileus, somnolence, and urinary retention) are also relevant to the patient's care, respiratory depression poses the most immediate threat to the patient's safety and requires urgent attention.
Question 2 of 5
A patient being seen for skin concerns asks, 'What do keratolytic drugs remove?' What is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing new medication orders that have been written for a newly admitted patient. The nurse will need to clarify which orders? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Medication orders must be clear, complete, and appropriate for the patient's condition. Orders that include 'as needed' (PRN) medications, such as 'Docusate (Colace) as needed for constipation,' require clarification because they lack specific dosing instructions. The nurse must confirm the frequency, dosage, and indications for PRN medications to ensure safe administration. The other orders (Metformin, Sitagliptin, Simvastatin, and Irbesartan) are complete and do not require clarification. Therefore, the nurse should focus on clarifying the PRN order to avoid errors in medication administration.
Question 4 of 5
Chris asks the nurse whether all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always require cross-matching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) always require cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient blood types. Cross-matching involves testing the recipient's serum against the donor's red cells to detect antibodies that could cause a transfusion reaction. Granulocytes, platelets, and plasma do not require cross-matching in the same way, although they may undergo other compatibility tests. PRBCs are the most critical to match correctly due to the risk of hemolytic reactions, which can be life-threatening.
Question 5 of 5
It is rational and advised therapeutic practice to commence treatment with the following drug using a loading dose if a rapid onset of action is required:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A loading dose achieves therapeutic levels quickly for drugs with long half-lives or urgent needs. Clozapine's slow titration avoids agranulocytosis, not rapid loading. Zolmitriptan, for acute migraine, acts fast without loading due to short half-life. Amiodarone, with a half-life of weeks, uses loading doses (e.g., 800-1600 mg/day) to rapidly control arrhythmias, rational for urgent onset. Levodopa's short half-life and titration in Parkinson's don't require loading. Doxazosin, for hypertension, starts low to avoid first-dose hypotension. Amiodarone's pharmacokinetics and arrhythmia urgency make loading advised, balancing efficacy and toxicity risks.