ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with intensely pruritic, linear burrows on the web spaces of the hands and wrists. The patient reports a history of close contact with an individual diagnosed with a similar condition. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Scabies. This presentation is classic for scabies infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The intensely pruritic linear burrows are pathognomonic. Close contact with an individual with scabies increases the likelihood of transmission. The other choices, B: Pediculosis, C: Tinea corporis, and D: Contact dermatitis, do not typically present with linear burrows on the hands and wrists. Pediculosis presents with lice infestation, Tinea corporis with circular lesions, and contact dermatitis with erythema and edema.
Question 3 of 9
When a person vaccinated with a Covid-19 vaccine produces antibodies to the disease, the immunity is termed:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active artificial immunity. This is because the person's immune system is actively stimulated by the vaccine to produce antibodies against Covid-19. It is considered artificial because it is acquired through vaccination rather than natural exposure to the disease. B: Active natural immunity is incorrect because it refers to immunity acquired through natural exposure to the disease. C: Passive natural immunity is incorrect because it refers to temporary immunity passed from mother to baby through breast milk or placenta. D: Passive artificial immunity is incorrect because it refers to receiving pre-formed antibodies, such as through an injection of antibodies rather than the body producing them itself.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about medication adherence. What approach by the nurse promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to ask questions and express concerns promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care. This approach fosters communication, understanding, and collaboration between the nurse and patient, leading to better medication adherence. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks patient involvement. Choice B is helpful but does not necessarily empower the patient. Choice D is directive and does not encourage active participation or empowerment.
Question 5 of 9
A patient expresses concerns about the financial implications of their treatment plan. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse's role is to address the holistic needs of the patient, including financial concerns. Providing information about financial assistance programs and resources shows empathy and supports the patient in making informed decisions. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns can lead to a breakdown in trust and communication. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the patient's concerns is not addressing the patient's needs. Choice D is incorrect because financial concerns are valid and should be considered in decision-making.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a history of nephrolithiasis presents with sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin. On physical examination, there is tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal colic due to ureteral calculus. The sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin along with tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria are classic symptoms of kidney stones (ureteral calculus). The pain results from the obstruction of urine flow by the stone, leading to increased pressure and spasm in the ureter. Acute pyelonephritis (choice A) presents with fever, chills, and systemic symptoms. Renal artery embolism (choice B) typically presents with acute onset severe flank pain but is associated with risk factors like atrial fibrillation. Renal infarction (choice D) presents with sudden-onset severe flank pain but is less likely than ureteral calculus in a patient with a history of nephrolithiasis.
Question 7 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with severe abdominal pain and passage of tissue at 12 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is partially dilated, and products of conception are protruding through the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the pregnant woman is presenting with severe abdominal pain, passage of tissue, and cervical dilation with products of conception protruding through the cervical os at 12 weeks gestation. These are classic signs and symptoms of an incomplete abortion. Incomplete abortion occurs when not all of the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. It can present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, cervical dilation, and passage of tissue. The management of incomplete abortion may involve expectant, medical, or surgical options depending on the clinical context and the patient's condition.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following structures is responsible for the initial mechanical breakdown of food during mastication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teeth. Teeth are responsible for the initial mechanical breakdown of food during mastication. Step 1: Teeth use their hard surfaces to chew and grind food into smaller pieces. Step 2: This process increases the surface area of the food, making it easier for digestive enzymes to break down. Step 3: The tongue aids in moving the food around the mouth but does not break down the food mechanically. Pharynx is responsible for swallowing, not mastication. Salivary glands produce saliva that helps in the lubrication and digestion of food, but they do not directly participate in the mechanical breakdown of food.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inductive process. Qualitative research typically involves an inductive approach, where researchers gather data, analyze patterns, and develop theories or hypotheses based on the observed data. This allows for exploration and discovery of new insights. A) Deductive process is not a characteristic of qualitative research, as deductive reasoning involves starting with a hypothesis and testing it with data. B) Fixed research design is not common in qualitative research, which often uses flexible and adaptive designs to accommodate emergent findings. C) Control over the context is not a key characteristic of qualitative research, as it often involves studying real-world settings with natural contexts rather than controlled environments. In summary, the inductive process is a key characteristic of qualitative research as it allows for exploration and theory development based on observed data, distinguishing it from deductive approaches, fixed designs, and controlled contexts.