ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.
Question 2 of 9
A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses concerns about breastfeeding positions and comfort. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's concerns?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Demonstrating breastfeeding positions that minimize pressure on the incision site should be the nursing intervention prioritized to address the client's concerns. This is important because it ensures that the client can breastfeed comfortably while also protecting the healing incision. By showing the client appropriate positions, such as the football hold or side-lying position, the nurse can help minimize discomfort and promote successful breastfeeding without compromising the cesarean incision's healing process. It is crucial to support the client in establishing a good latch and positioning to encourage proper milk transfer and bonding while being mindful of the incision site.
Question 3 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with suspected community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is empirically started on antibiotic therapy pending culture results. Which of the following antibiotic regimens provides appropriate coverage for typical bacterial pathogens commonly implicated in CAP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone covers Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common pathogen in CAP, while azithromycin covers atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam (choice B) are not first-line treatments for CAP. Ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin (choice C) cover some pathogens but not as comprehensively as ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Clindamycin and cefepime (choice D) do not provide adequate coverage for typical CAP pathogens.
Question 5 of 9
A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of uterine inertia, with weak and irregular contractions contributing to slow cervical dilation. What nursing intervention should be implemented to address this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cases of uterine inertia, where weak and irregular contractions are causing slow cervical dilation during labor, administering intravenous oxytocin can help augment contractions and stimulate more effective progress. Oxytocin is a hormone that naturally stimulates uterine contractions and is commonly used in clinical settings to induce or enhance labor. By increasing the strength and frequency of contractions, oxytocin can help address uterine inertia and promote efficient cervical dilation to facilitate the progress of labor. It is important to monitor the response to oxytocin carefully to avoid complications such as hyperstimulation of the uterus, which can lead to fetal distress.
Question 6 of 9
Sensitivity is the ability of a screening test to accurately identify what aspect of the screening?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persons who have the disease. Sensitivity measures how well a test correctly identifies individuals who have the disease (true positives). It is essential in determining the test's ability to detect the presence of the disease accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sensitivity focuses on correctly identifying individuals who have the disease, not those with symptoms, those without the disease, or those with a diagnosis of the disease.
Question 7 of 9
A biphasic anti-ovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female patient. What should the nurse include when teaching about this oral contraceptive?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the indicators BEST describes an effective outcome of school nursing programs and initiatives.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because zero absenteeism and tardiness of pupils indicate that the school nursing programs are effectively promoting student health and well-being. This outcome shows that students are healthy, engaged, and present in school, which is a key goal of school nursing initiatives. Choice B is incorrect as teachers being observers does not directly measure the effectiveness of the nursing programs. Choice C is incorrect as limited information hinders the success and impact of school health initiatives. Choice D is incorrect as constant visits and phone calls from parents may not necessarily reflect the success of the nursing programs.
Question 9 of 9
Collaboration and teamwork are essential in public health to improve
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Equity in services. Collaboration and teamwork in public health are crucial to ensure equal access to services for all populations, regardless of their background or socioeconomic status. By working together, public health professionals can identify disparities and implement strategies to address them, ultimately leading to improved equity in healthcare services. A: Staff performance - While collaboration and teamwork can positively impact staff performance, the primary focus in public health is on achieving equity in services for all individuals. C: Proper use of resources - Collaboration can help optimize resource allocation, but the main goal in public health is to ensure equitable access to services. D: Quality healthcare - While collaboration can enhance the quality of healthcare, the primary emphasis in public health is on promoting equity in services to address health disparities.