The nurse assesses a patient for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What is the meaning of an MEC score of 1?

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Contraception Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse assesses a patient for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What is the meaning of an MEC score of 1?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of medical eligibility for contraceptive use, an MEC (Medical Eligibility Criteria) score of 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for using the particular contraceptive method. A score of 1 suggests that the advantages of using the contraceptive method outweigh any potential risks, making it a safe and recommended choice for the patient. Therefore, a patient with an MEC score of 1 can use the contraceptive method without any concerns regarding health risks or restrictions.

Question 2 of 5

Why would FAM not be appropriate for the nurse to recommend to a perimenopausal person?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fertility Awareness Methods (FAM) rely on tracking menstrual cycles and using that information to predict fertile and infertile days. In perimenopausal individuals, menstrual periods can become irregular due to hormonal fluctuations associated with menopause. As a result, it can be challenging to accurately determine fertile and infertile days, making FAM less effective for contraception in this population. Therefore, recommending FAM to a perimenopausal person with irregular menstrual periods would not be appropriate.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse provides counseling on coitus interruptus. What important counseling should be included?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The important counseling that should be included when discussing coitus interruptus (withdrawal method) is that the partners must communicate well to use this method effectively. Coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing his penis from the vagina before ejaculation to prevent sperm from entering the woman's reproductive tract. Effective communication between partners is crucial to ensure that the method is used correctly and consistently. This method does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so it's also important to discuss alternative methods of contraception for STI prevention. The statement that this method is 100 percent effective is incorrect, as pre-ejaculate can contain sperm and there is a risk of pregnancy if withdrawal is not done correctly.

Question 4 of 5

What is an advantage of the cervical cap over the diaphragm?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The advantage of the cervical cap over the diaphragm is that it typically has a lower failure rate in preventing pregnancy. Failure rates for contraceptive methods refer to the percentage of women who become pregnant within the first year of typical use. The cervical cap is generally associated with a lower failure rate compared to the diaphragm due to its snugger fit and ability to cover the cervix more effectively, resulting in better protection against sperm entering the uterus. This makes the cervical cap a more reliable option for women seeking effective contraception.

Question 5 of 5

A patient calls and says she used her diaphragm on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., again on Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and again at 8:00 a.m. She is wondering when she can safely remove it while still having effective contraception. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In general, a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse but no more than 24 hours. Based on the patient's usage times on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and Sunday morning at 8:00 a.m., she can safely remove the diaphragm on Monday morning at 8:00 a.m. This ensures she has used it for the necessary timeframe for effective contraception.

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