ATI RN
RN Maternal Newborn Online Practice 2019 A Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse assesses a patient for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What is the meaning of an MEC score of 2?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An MEC score of 2 indicates that there is an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive method is used. This means that the potential health risks associated with using this particular contraceptive method outweigh the benefits. Therefore, the nurse should advise against using this method for contraception due to the elevated health risks involved. It is essential for healthcare providers to meticulously assess the medical eligibility of a patient before recommending any contraceptive method to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. In pregnant individuals, trichomoniasis can result in adverse pregnancy outcomes such as preterm birth and low birth weight. A common symptom of trichomoniasis is a frothy, yellow-green, malodorous vaginal discharge. Therefore, in this client scenario, the nurse should expect to find a malodorous discharge as a result of trichomoniasis. The other options presented are not typically associated with trichomoniasis.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should notify the provider for the client who is receiving magnesium sulfate and has absent deep tendon reflexes. Absent deep tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity, which can lead to serious complications such as respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt intervention by the provider is necessary to adjust the magnesium sulfate dosage and prevent further harm to the client.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 4hr postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for a client experiencing hypovolemic shock is to restore circulating volume. Inserting a second IV using a 22-gauge catheter would allow for rapid administration of IV fluids to help restore blood volume and improve circulation. This intervention is crucial in managing hypovolemic shock to prevent further complications and stabilize the client's condition. Administering indomethacin, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or administering oxygen, while potentially necessary in some cases, are not the immediate priority in managing hypovolemic shock.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statement by the client requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Seeing spots or experiencing visual disturbances can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure. Preeclampsia can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby, so it requires immediate intervention by the nurse. The other statements made by the client are concerning but do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to the symptoms of preeclampsia.