ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse assesses a client shortly after kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine output of 20mL/hour. This is a critical finding after kidney transplant surgery as it indicates potential kidney dysfunction or acute kidney injury. Decreased urine output can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which can be life-threatening. Immediate physician notification is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate danger. Serum potassium level of 4.9mEq/L is slightly elevated but not critical. Temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) is within normal limits for postoperative care. Serum sodium level of 135mEq/L is also normal and does not warrant immediate physician notification.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving antibiotics to treat a gram-negative bacterial infection. Because antibiotics destroy the body’s normal flora, the nurse must monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diarrhea. Antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of gut bacteria, leading to diarrhea. This occurs due to the overgrowth of harmful bacteria in the intestines. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to prevent dehydration and further complications. Platelet dysfunction (A), stomatitis (B), and oliguria/dysuria (C) are not typically associated with the disruption of normal flora by antibiotics. These symptoms are more likely related to other conditions or side effects of medications, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin works by cross-linking DNA, leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis and ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cancer cells. B: It’s cell cycle-phase specific - This is incorrect because mitomycin is not specific to a particular phase of the cell cycle. C: It inhibits ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis - This is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis, not RNA synthesis. D: It inhibits protein synthesis - This is incorrect as mitomycin's main mechanism of action is through DNA cross-linking, not protein synthesis inhibition.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff causes memory cells to convert to plasma cells?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Re-exposure to a specific antigen. Memory cells are formed after initial exposure to an antigen. Upon re-exposure to the same antigen, memory cells quickly recognize and respond, converting into plasma cells to produce antibodies. This process is known as secondary immune response. Incorrect choices: A: An organ transplant - Organ transplant does not involve the conversion of memory cells to plasma cells. C: Release of lymphokines - Lymphokines are signaling molecules secreted by immune cells but do not directly cause memory cells to convert to plasma cells. D: Initial exposure to an antigen - Initial exposure to an antigen leads to the formation of memory cells, not their conversion to plasma cells upon re-exposure.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff interventions is implemented for a client with empyema?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Emphasize the completion of the entire course of drug therapy. Empyema is a serious condition that requires antibiotic treatment. Emphasizing the completion of the entire course of drug therapy is crucial to ensure that the infection is completely eradicated and to prevent the development of drug-resistant strains. Teaching breathing exercises (choice A) may help improve lung function but is not the primary intervention for empyema. Offering assurance that empyema takes less time to resolve (choice B) is incorrect as it can mislead the client about the seriousness of the condition. Recommending a balanced but light diet (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but is not directly related to treating empyema.
Question 6 of 9
A client is scheduled for surgery for an abdominal hysterectomy. During the preoperative assessment, the client states, 'I am very nervous and scared to have surgery.' What client outcome is the priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Resolve the client’s anxiety. Addressing the client's anxiety is the priority because it can impact their overall surgical experience, recovery, and outcomes. Resolving anxiety can improve the client's emotional well-being, enhance cooperation during surgery, and reduce postoperative complications related to stress. Providing emotional support and reassurance should be the initial focus to help the client feel more comfortable and confident about the upcoming surgery. The other choices are not the priority in this situation: A) Evaluating the need for antibiotics can be addressed later in the preoperative process, C) Providing preoperative education is important but not the immediate priority over addressing anxiety, and D) Preparing the client for surgery includes various components, but emotional well-being should be addressed first.
Question 7 of 9
Severe and extensive hemolysis causes which of the ff?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe and extensive hemolysis leads to the release of large amounts of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing hemoglobinemia. This can result in hemoglobinuria, leading to acute renal failure and ultimately shock. Shock is the correct answer as it is a severe consequence of extensive hemolysis. Leg ulcers (A) may occur in conditions like peripheral arterial disease. Priapism (C) is unrelated to hemolysis. Compromised growth (D) is not a common consequence of hemolysis.
Question 8 of 9
A patient asks the nurse what her diagnosis of heart failure means. Which of the ff. is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Your heart is not an efficient pump.” This response is the best choice as it accurately describes heart failure, which is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively. This leads to symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Explanation: 1. Choice A is incorrect because heart failure does not mean the heart stops; it means the heart is not functioning properly. 2. Choice B is incorrect because heart failure does not necessarily mean there is dead muscle tissue in the heart. 3. Choice C is incorrect because heart failure is not about pumping too much blood; it is about the heart's inability to pump blood efficiently, leading to circulation problems and other symptoms.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is using the problem-oriented approach to data collection. Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focus on the patient's presenting situation. In the problem-oriented approach, the nurse starts by identifying the patient's main issue or reason for seeking care. This step helps prioritize data collection and guides further assessment and intervention. By focusing on the presenting situation, the nurse can gather relevant information efficiently and address the immediate concern. Incorrect choices: A: Completing questions in chronological order may not be the most effective approach as it does not prioritize the patient's current problem. C: Making accurate interpretations of data comes after data collection and analysis, not as the first step. D: Conducting an observational overview is important, but it should come after focusing on the patient's presenting situation to gather targeted data.