ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse and a colleague are performing the Epley maneuver with a patient who has a diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. The nurses should begin this maneuver by performing what action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assisting the patient into a sitting position. The Epley maneuver is used to treat benign paroxysmal positional vertigo by repositioning displaced calcium carbonate crystals in the inner ear. This maneuver involves a series of specific head movements. Starting with the patient in a sitting position allows for proper orientation and positioning for subsequent movements to be effective. Placing the patient in a prone position (A) would not facilitate the correct positioning for the maneuver. Instilling warm saline into the ear (C) is not part of the Epley maneuver. Assessing baseline hearing (D) is unrelated to performing the Epley maneuver.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse wants to present information about fluimmunizations to the older adults in the community. Which type of communication should the nurse use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Small group. When presenting information about flu immunizations to older adults in the community, using small group communication is most effective. In small group settings, the nurse can engage with the audience, encourage discussions, answer questions, and address individual concerns. This approach allows for personalized interaction, fosters trust, and facilitates better understanding and retention of information. Public communication (choice A) may not provide the same level of individualized attention. Interpersonal communication (choice C) typically refers to one-on-one interactions, which may not reach a larger audience efficiently. Intrapersonal communication (choice D) involves self-reflection and is not suitable for disseminating information to a group.
Question 4 of 9
A patient, brought to the clinic by his wife and son, is diagnosed with Huntington disease. When providing anticipatory guidance, the nurse should address the future possibility of what effect of Huntington disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Emotional and personality changes. In Huntington disease, neurodegeneration affects the brain, leading to changes in behavior, emotions, and personality. These changes are characteristic of the disease progression. Metastasis (A) refers to the spread of cancer, which is not associated with Huntington disease. Risk for stroke (B) is not a typical manifestation of Huntington disease. Pathologic bone fractures (D) are not directly related to the primary symptoms of Huntington disease. Thus, addressing emotional and personality changes is crucial in providing anticipatory guidance for individuals with Huntington disease.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is aware of the need to assess patients risks for anaphylaxis. What health care procedure constitutes the highest risk for anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography with contrast solution. This procedure involves the use of contrast agents that can trigger anaphylaxis due to the patient's allergic reaction to the contrast solution. Contrast solutions contain substances like iodine, which can cause severe allergic reactions in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and requires immediate intervention. Assessing the risk for anaphylaxis during this procedure is crucial to prevent any potential harm to the patient. Incorrect choices: A: Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine - While allergic reactions can occur with vaccines, the risk of anaphylaxis with MMR vaccine is lower compared to the contrast solution used in CT scans. B: Rapid administration of intravenous fluids - Rapid IV fluid administration can cause fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not typically associated with triggering anaphylaxis. D: Administration of nebulized bronchodil
Question 6 of 9
The patient has just been started on an enteral feeding and has developed diarrhea after being on the feeding for 2 hours. What does the nurse suspect is themostlikely cause of the diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Formula intolerance. When a patient develops diarrhea shortly after starting enteral feeding, formula intolerance is the most likely cause. This can occur due to the patient's inability to tolerate certain ingredients in the formula, leading to gastrointestinal upset. Antibiotics (choice A) and Clostridium difficile (choice B) typically take longer to cause diarrhea. Bacterial contamination (choice D) would usually result in more severe symptoms beyond just diarrhea. In this scenario, formula intolerance is the most logical explanation for the immediate onset of diarrhea after starting enteral feeding.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrhea for the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss, causing dehydration and decreased skin turgor. This indicates the patient's hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more common in conditions like bowel obstruction, not necessarily in diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely due to the patient's weakened state from dehydration. D: Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration.
Question 8 of 9
How will the nurse classify this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obese. This classification is based on the Body Mass Index (BMI) calculation, which takes into account weight and height. A BMI above 30 is considered obese, indicating excess body fat. Other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the BMI criteria for obesity. Choice A is incorrect as normal weight falls within a specific BMI range. Choice B is incorrect for individuals with a BMI below the normal range. Choice C is incorrect for individuals with a BMI between the overweight and obese categories.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is teaching preventative measures for otitis externa to a group of older adults. What action should the nurse encourage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rinsing the ears with normal saline after swimming. This is because rinsing with normal saline helps to remove excess moisture and debris, preventing bacterial growth that can lead to otitis externa. Avoiding loud noises (B) is important for overall ear health but does not specifically prevent otitis externa. Instilling antibiotic ointments regularly (C) is not recommended as it can disrupt the ear's natural flora. Avoiding cotton swabs (D) is important to prevent injury but does not directly prevent otitis externa.