The nurse administers narcotics to surgical patients. Which statement represents the nurse's best understanding as it relates to the potency of different narcotics?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Morphine's higher potency than codeine means less is needed for equal pain relief, a pharmacodynamic fact-e.g., 10 mg morphine matches 60 mg codeine. Allergy isn't potency-related. More adverse effects assume dose equivalence, not potency. Pain relief ties to dose, not potency alone. Potency drives dosing, key for surgical pain control.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's chronic springtime symptoms-itchy, watery eyes, and runny nose-point to seasonal allergic rhinitis, a histamine-driven condition. Albuterol is a bronchodilator for asthma, not allergies. Diphenhydramine is an H1 antihistamine, effective but sedating, which may not suit an active steamroller operator. Epinephrine is for acute anaphylaxis, not chronic allergies. Hydroxyzine is another sedating antihistamine, less ideal for daily use. Loratadine (E), a non-sedating H1 antihistamine, effectively blocks histamine receptors, relieving symptoms without drowsiness, making it the most appropriate choice. Given his occupation and chronicity, a non-sedating option is critical for safety and compliance. Loratadine's long-acting, once-daily dosing also fits his reluctance to seek medical care, offering convenience and efficacy. The rationale prioritizes a treatment balancing symptom relief with minimal impact on his daily function, ruling out sedating or irrelevant options.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Bronchodilator. Cromolyn sodium is a mast cell stabilizer that works by preventing the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells, which helps to prevent asthma attacks when used as a preventative therapy. It is not a bronchodilator, which is a medication that works by dilating the airways to provide immediate relief during an acute asthma attack. Option A) Anti-inflammatory is incorrect because cromolyn sodium does have anti-inflammatory properties, but it primarily works by preventing mast cell degranulation rather than directly reducing inflammation like corticosteroids. Option C) Immune modulator is incorrect because while cromolyn sodium does modulate the immune response by stabilizing mast cells, it is not its primary mechanism of action. Option D) Mast cell stabilizer is incorrect because this property is actually a characteristic of cromolyn sodium and is why it is effective in preventing asthma attacks by inhibiting the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of different asthma medications is crucial for healthcare providers to effectively manage and treat patients with asthma. Knowing the specific properties of medications like cromolyn sodium can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the appropriate use of these drugs in managing asthma symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Sedation. Barbiturates are central nervous system depressants that act by enhancing the inhibitory effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. Taking 2 out of 30 pills may lead to a sedative effect, causing the individual to feel drowsy, calm, and possibly euphoric. Option A) Anesthesia is unlikely with the ingestion of just 2 pills, as anesthesia typically requires higher doses and specific administration by healthcare professionals. Option B) Coma is a possibility but less likely compared to sedation. Coma usually occurs at higher doses of barbiturates. Option C) Death is less likely with just 2 pills, as a lethal dose of barbiturates is much higher and can vary depending on the individual's tolerance and other factors. Educationally, this question highlights the effects of barbiturates on the central nervous system and the potential dangers of misuse. It also emphasizes the importance of understanding dosages and expected outcomes of different medications. Understanding these concepts is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Lithium, used for bipolar disorder, stabilizes mood via inositol depletion and other mechanisms. It can cause hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism, by inhibiting thyroid hormone release. High sodium intake increases lithium excretion, lowering plasma levels, not raising them. Common adverse effects include acne (sebaceous gland stimulation), polydipsia, and polyuria (due to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from ADH antagonism), affecting many patients and requiring monitoring. Teratogenicity concerns focus on Ebstein's anomaly (cardiac defect), not spina bifida, though risks are low with modern management. Sedation isn't rapid; therapeutic effects take days to weeks. The constellation of acne, polydipsia, and polyuria reflects lithium's broad physiological impact, making it the most accurate description of its side effect profile.