ATI RN
ATI VATI Pharmacology Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse administers narcotics to surgical patients. Which statement represents the nurse's best understanding as it relates to the potency of different narcotics?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Morphine's higher potency than codeine means less is needed for equal pain relief, a pharmacodynamic fact-e.g., 10 mg morphine matches 60 mg codeine. Allergy isn't potency-related. More adverse effects assume dose equivalence, not potency. Pain relief ties to dose, not potency alone. Potency drives dosing, key for surgical pain control.
Question 2 of 5
A 52-year-old overweight male steamroller operator presents to his primary care physician complaining of itchy, watery eyes and runny nose in the springtime. He says that he has had this problem for as long as he can remember but does not like going to doctors. His wife finally convinced him to come today to see what his physician might be able to do for him. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's chronic springtime symptoms-itchy, watery eyes, and runny nose-point to seasonal allergic rhinitis, a histamine-driven condition. Albuterol is a bronchodilator for asthma, not allergies. Diphenhydramine is an H1 antihistamine, effective but sedating, which may not suit an active steamroller operator. Epinephrine is for acute anaphylaxis, not chronic allergies. Hydroxyzine is another sedating antihistamine, less ideal for daily use. Loratadine (E), a non-sedating H1 antihistamine, effectively blocks histamine receptors, relieving symptoms without drowsiness, making it the most appropriate choice. Given his occupation and chronicity, a non-sedating option is critical for safety and compliance. Loratadine's long-acting, once-daily dosing also fits his reluctance to seek medical care, offering convenience and efficacy. The rationale prioritizes a treatment balancing symptom relief with minimal impact on his daily function, ruling out sedating or irrelevant options.
Question 3 of 5
A 27-year-old man with recurrent asthma attacks is being considered for preventative therapy with cromolyn sodium. This agent is not effective as an acute treatment of an asthma attack because of the lack of which of the following properties?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 22-year-old man college student does poorly on a course examination and decides to attempt suicide. He finds a bottle of barbiturates in his mother's medicine cabinet. He takes 2 of the 30 pills in the bottle. Which of the following effects is most likely to be exhibited by the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
Which one of the following statements about lithium is accurate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lithium, used for bipolar disorder, stabilizes mood via inositol depletion and other mechanisms. It can cause hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism, by inhibiting thyroid hormone release. High sodium intake increases lithium excretion, lowering plasma levels, not raising them. Common adverse effects include acne (sebaceous gland stimulation), polydipsia, and polyuria (due to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from ADH antagonism), affecting many patients and requiring monitoring. Teratogenicity concerns focus on Ebstein's anomaly (cardiac defect), not spina bifida, though risks are low with modern management. Sedation isn't rapid; therapeutic effects take days to weeks. The constellation of acne, polydipsia, and polyuria reflects lithium's broad physiological impact, making it the most accurate description of its side effect profile.