ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse administers IV push hydralazine (Apresoline) to a client with severe hypertension. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hydralazine, a vasodilator, lowers blood pressure but triggers reflex tachycardia. A heart rate of 110 bpm indicates significant compensation, risking ischemia or strain, requiring immediate action (e.g., slowing infusion, notifying physician). BP of 140/90 is improved, not critical. Headache and flushing are expected from vasodilation, less urgent. Tachycardia's potential to destabilize circulation, especially in severe hypertension, aligns with hydralazine's pharmacology'arteriolar relaxation prompts sympathetic response. This finding demands swift intervention to prevent cardiovascular collapse, making B the priority over manageable side effects.
Question 2 of 5
A local municipality is alerted that low doses of carbon tetrachloride have been dumped into the drinking water. A public health alert is transmitted to all residents of this town. Which of the following signs and symptoms should these residents be aware of?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Carbon tetrachloride exposure causes nausea , reflecting GI and hepatic toxicity. Convulsions and stupor occur with high doses. Eye irritation and vomiting (E) are less specific. Low-dose ingestion aligns with nausea as a primary symptom.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is not an opioid or NSAID. It is a pain reliever and fever reducer, but it works in a different way compared to opioids and NSAIDs. Unlike opioids, acetaminophen does not have the same risk of physical dependence or addiction. And unlike NSAIDs, acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is often used for mild to moderate pain relief and as a fever reducer. Be cautious when taking acetaminophen, as high doses can be harmful to the liver.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to inform the patient that the medication, likely an antiarrhythmic agent such as digoxin immune fab (Digibind), helps to convert the irregular heart rhythm caused by digoxin toxicity to a more normal rhythm. This explanation provides a clear understanding of why the medication is being administered in cases of digoxin toxicity. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about the purpose of the medication and how it will help manage the symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with extremely high blood pressure (BP) is in the emergency department. The physician will order therapy with nitroglycerin to manage the patient™s BP. Which form of nitroglycerin is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the emergency management of a patient with extremely high blood pressure, intravenous (IV) administration of nitroglycerin is the most appropriate form of delivery. IV infusion provides rapid and precise control of blood pressure by allowing the medication to take effect quickly and be titrated to the desired blood pressure level. This route of administration is crucial in acute settings like the emergency department, where immediate blood pressure management is needed. Other forms of nitroglycerin, such as sublingual spray, transdermal patch, or oral capsule, may not provide the rapid onset of action required in this critical situation.