ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse administers IV furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. Which finding indicates a therapeutic effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide reduces fluid overload in heart failure by diuresis, decreasing edema , a direct therapeutic sign. BP may drop, not rise. Heart rate isn't primary'preload reduction matters. Thirst is a side effect. Edema reduction aligns with furosemide's action, critical in heart failure where congestion drives symptoms, making A the key finding.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse will monitor a patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia if the patient is taking which of these diuretics?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by promoting potassium retention in the body. Therefore, patients taking spironolactone are at a higher risk of developing hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and even cardiac arrest. It is important for the nurse to monitor patients on spironolactone for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia, such as weakness, numbness, tingling, or an irregular heartbeat. Other diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide (A), furosemide (B), and acetazolamide (C) do not typically cause hyperkalemia as they work to decrease potassium levels in the body.
Question 3 of 5
Following surgery, a client is placed on cefotaxime (Claforan). The assessment for possible adverse effects should include observing for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cefotaxime is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections post-surgery. One of its most significant and frequent adverse effects is disruption of the gastrointestinal flora, which can lead to diarrhea, including potentially severe conditions like Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea. This makes monitoring for diarrhea a critical nursing action, as it can indicate a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While headache, constipation, and tachycardia can occur with various medications, they are less commonly associated with cefotaxime compared to diarrhea. Headache might suggest a neurological issue or dehydration, constipation could relate to immobility post-surgery rather than the drug itself, and tachycardia might indicate an allergic reaction or systemic issue, but these are not the primary concerns with this antibiotic. Diarrhea, however, directly correlates with cefotaxime's impact on gut microbiota, making it the priority observation for adverse effects in this scenario, thus supporting choice A as the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
A 29-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a regular yearly checkup. She has a history of a seizure disorder and has been taking an antiseizure medication for 8 years. She is also taking an oral contraceptive. She is in good health but complains that her gums seem to be overgrowing her teeth. Which of the following medications is likely responsible for her chief complaint?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of Phenytoin , an antiseizure drug. Estrogen and Progesterone in contraceptives don't cause this. Lamotrigine and Valproic acid (E) lack this effect. Phenytoin's long-term use induces gum overgrowth, fitting her 8-year history.
Question 5 of 5
A patient looks up the drug he is taking in a drug guide. The patient asks the nurse why the physician prescribed a medication that has a lethal dose measure. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lethal dose (e.g., LD50) from research guides safe dosing by showing toxicity thresholds, reassuring the patient it informs, not dictates, prescription. It's not just research trivia-doctors use it indirectly. Side effect watching doesn't explain it. Deferring to the doctor avoids education. Research value ties to safety, clarifying its relevance.