ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to a client with edema. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, treats edema by increasing urine output but depletes potassium via renal excretion, risking hypokalemia. This can cause muscle weakness or arrhythmias, critical in edema patients often with cardiac issues. Monitoring potassium closely ensures timely correction, preventing life-threatening complications. Sodium may decrease but is less urgent unless extreme. Calcium loss occurs but is rarer and less impactful acutely. Glucose isn't directly affected by furosemide. Potassium's rapid depletion aligns with the drug's mechanism'blocking the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter'making it the priority lab value. Regular checks (e.g., serum levels) guide supplementation, ensuring safety during diuresis, thus B is the nurse's focus for effective monitoring and intervention.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following contributes most to the debilitation of an individual during a course of chemotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pain is a significant contributor to the debilitation of an individual during a course of chemotherapy. The side effects of chemotherapy often include pain, which can be caused by treatment procedures, side effects of medication, or the cancer itself. Pain can lead to decreased mobility, appetite, and overall quality of life, impacting the individual's ability to cope with treatment and recovery. Managing pain effectively is crucial in improving the patient's comfort and overall well-being during chemotherapy. While diarrhea, alopecia, and constipation are common side effects of chemotherapy, they do not typically contribute as significantly to the debilitation of an individual compared to pain.
Question 3 of 5
A 26-year-old man with a chronic cough takes codeine for cough suppression. He presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. The patient admits to taking this medication three times daily even when he does not have symptoms. The treating physician must be concerned about which of the following effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Codeine, an opioid, risks addiction with frequent use. Diarrhea opposes its constipating effect. Euphoria and anxiety are possible but less concerning. Sweating (E) is minor. Addiction potential drives monitoring, given his overuse pattern.
Question 4 of 5
A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fevers, chills, muscle aches, and headaches for the past 16 h. His son has been sick for the past week and unable to attend daycare. He did not receive the influenza vaccine this year. A nasal swab is performed and he is diagnosed with influenza. He is started on oseltamivir. What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oseltamivir treats influenza by inhibiting neuraminidase . This prevents viral release from infected cells, reducing spread. M2 blockade is amantadine's action. IMP dehydrogenase , reverse transcriptase , and DNA polymerase (E) are unrelated. Neuraminidase inhibition shortens his illness.
Question 5 of 5
A 60-year-old woman has ulcerative colitis resistant to aminosalicylates and topical corticosteroids. It is decided to treat her with systemic corticosteroids. Which of the following is not a likely complication of the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Systemic corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone) for ulcerative colitis cause side effects. Osteoporosis results from reduced bone formation over time. Diabetes stems from glucocorticoid-induced hyperglycemia. Hypertension occurs via sodium retention and vasoconstriction. Mood changes are common due to CNS effects. Weight loss isn't typical; corticosteroids cause weight gain from increased appetite and fat redistribution, making it the exception. This reflects their metabolic impact, requiring monitoring in chronic use.