ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse administers calcium intravenously (IV) to the client. What will a key assessment by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV calcium risks infiltration-site assessment (e.g., swelling) ensures safety, per protocol. Glucose/potassium aren't directly tied-edema is secondary. Site check prevents complications, per administration.
Question 2 of 5
A 35-year-old African American male in the military is hospitalized with an MRSA skin infection. The patient starts treatment with an antibiotic and becomes anemic and jaundiced. On peripheral blood smear, Heinz bodies are seen within red blood cells. What is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic given to this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MRSA treatment causing anemia, jaundice, and Heinz bodies suggests dapsone (sulfa drug), which inhibits folic acid metabolism . Oxidative stress from dapsone in G6PD-deficient patients (common in African Americans) leads to hemolysis. Options and are macrolide and tetracycline mechanisms. Option is penicillin's action. RNA polymerase inhibition (E) is rifampin's. Dapsone's sulfa action fits the clinical picture, with hemolysis as a side effect, not its primary MRSA mechanism, but the question's focus on outcome aligns with folate pathway disruption.
Question 3 of 5
A 36-year-old woman grocery store manager with a fair complexion and blue eyes presents to her primary care physician for a routine exam. She mentions a friend of hers who is taking bimatoprost to increase the length and amount of her eyelashes and asks if you would recommend it for her. Her past medical history is significant for migraine headaches. Which of the following is a side effect you should warn her about?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bimatoprost for eyelashes risks permanent iris darkening , increasing melanin, especially in light eyes. Glaucoma is its therapeutic use, not a side effect here. Stevens-Johnson , weight gain , and migraines (E) aren't linked. Darkening is a key cosmetic concern.
Question 4 of 5
A 52-year-old man has had several focal complex partial seizures over the last year. Which one of the following therapies would be the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Levetiracetam treats focal complex partial seizures by modulating synaptic vesicle protein SV2A, reducing excitability with broad efficacy, good tolerability, and minimal interactions, making it an appropriate initial therapy. Ethosuximide targets absence seizures, not focal. Diazepam manages acute seizures, not maintenance. Carbamazepine plus primidone is excessive; carbamazepine alone controls focal seizures via sodium channel blockade but has more interactions. Watchful waiting risks progression. Levetiracetam's profile, per guidelines, suits this patient as a first-line choice.
Question 5 of 5
The client has been prescribed the opioid combination drug Novahistine DM for control of cough. This drug contains codeine, phenylephrine, and chlorpheniramine. Which instructions should the nurse provide as part of medication education?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Novahistine DM combines codeine (antitussive), phenylephrine (decongestant), and chlorpheniramine (antihistamine), causing sedation and impaired judgment. 'Do not make important decisions or operate machinery' is critical, as codeine's CNS depression, amplified by chlorpheniramine, risks accidents (correct answers: 3, 4, 5). Water aids swallowing but isn't key. Bedside storage risks overuse. Adherence is vital but secondary to safety. Choice D prioritizes preventing harm.