The nurse administers an initial dose of a steroid to a patient with asthma. Thirty minutes after administration, the nurse finds the patient agitated and stating that 'everyone is out to get me.' Which term is used for this unusual reaction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct term for the patient's unusual reaction is "C: Idiosyncratic reaction." This is because an idiosyncratic reaction is an unexpected and individual response to a medication that is not related to the known pharmacological actions of the drug. In this case, the patient's agitated behavior and paranoia are not typical side effects of steroids but rather a unique reaction specific to this individual. A: Desired action is incorrect because the patient's symptoms are not the intended therapeutic effect of the steroid. B: Adverse effect is incorrect because adverse effects are known and expected side effects of a medication, not unusual or unexpected reactions like in this scenario. D: Allergic reaction is incorrect because the patient's symptoms are not consistent with an allergic response, which typically involves rash, itching, or difficulty breathing.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Infusion reaction. Hydrocortisone is a corticosteroid that has anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties, which can help decrease infusion reactions such as fever, chills, and allergic reactions during drug administration. It works by suppressing the immune response that triggers these reactions. Red man syndrome (A) is associated with vancomycin use, nephrotoxicity (B) is related to kidney damage caused by certain drugs, and hepatotoxicity (C) refers to liver damage from drugs. These adverse effects are not directly impacted by hydrocortisone's mechanism of action.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ezetimibe. Ezetimibe works by inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine, reducing the amount of cholesterol that enters the bloodstream. Atorvastatin and Simvastatin are statins that work by reducing the production of cholesterol in the liver. Fenofibrate is a fibrate drug that helps lower triglycerides, not specifically targeting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly addresses the mechanism of inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. Tramadol is a centrally acting opioid analgesic that exerts its effects through weak opioid receptor binding and inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake. This dual mechanism of action contributes to its analgesic properties by modulating pain perception in the central nervous system. Option A is incorrect as tramadol's opioid receptor binding is weak compared to other opioids. Option C is incorrect as tramadol does not directly inhibit prostaglandin synthesis like NSAIDs. Option D is incorrect as tramadol does not primarily increase dopamine release.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hydralazine works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle through a direct vasodilatory effect, leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance and afterload. This relaxation occurs by increasing nitric oxide production, which promotes vasodilation. This mechanism helps reduce the workload on the heart and improve cardiac output in patients with heart failure. Choice B is incorrect because hydralazine does not block beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart. Choice C is incorrect because hydralazine does not directly affect sodium excretion in the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because hydralazine does not inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II; that is the mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors.