ATI RN
mcgraw hill microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The normal microflora is related to the defense in pathogens in
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The normal microflora plays a crucial role in defending against pathogens in the skin and mucus. This is because the skin and mucus act as physical barriers and the normal microflora outcompetes potential pathogens, preventing their colonization. In contrast, the circulatory system (A), hepatobiliary tract (B), and CNS (D) are not typically colonized by normal microflora, so they do not directly contribute to defense against pathogens in those areas.
Question 2 of 9
A child is presumably ill with diphtheria. A specimen of affected mucous membrane of his pharynx was taken for analysis. The smear was stained and microscopic examination revealed yellow rods with dark blue thickenings on their ends. What structural element of a germ cell was revealed in the detected microorganisms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Volutin granules. Volutin granules are metachromatic granules that stain dark blue with methylene blue or Leishman stain. In diphtheria-causing bacteria, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, these granules are typically seen as yellow rods with dark blue thickenings on their ends when stained. Volutin granules are storage inclusions composed of polymetaphosphate that serve as an energy reserve for the bacteria. The presence of these granules in the detected microorganisms indicates the characteristic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Summary of other choices: B: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA molecules that are not typically visible on stained smears. C: Capsules are outer protective layers that are not visible on stained smears. D: Spores are reproductive structures formed by certain bacteria, not typically seen in Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculosis antibiotic. Name this drug:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rifampicin is the correct answer because it is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis. It has excellent bactericidal activity and penetrates well into lung tissues where the infection is located. Rifampicin is also known for preventing the development of resistance. Tetracycline (A) and Furasolidone (B) are not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment. Bactrim (D) is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, not effective for tuberculosis treatment.
Question 4 of 9
The polymerase chain reaction CAN NOT be applied:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To determine the antibiotic susceptibility of microorganisms. PCR is not suitable for determining antibiotic susceptibility as it is a technique used to amplify DNA/RNA, not to test for antibiotic resistance. To prove latent infection (A), PCR can be used to detect low levels of pathogens. For rapid diagnosis of infectious diseases (B), PCR is commonly used due to its sensitivity and specificity. To demonstrate DNA and RNA molecules (D), PCR is ideal as it can amplify and detect specific sequences. Therefore, choice C is incorrect as PCR is not designed for determining antibiotic susceptibility.
Question 5 of 9
What is the most appropriate method for diagnosis of listeriosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: cultivating on artificial media and biochemical identification. This method is appropriate for diagnosing listeriosis because it allows for the isolation and growth of Listeria species on selective media, followed by biochemical tests to confirm the identity. Serological diagnosis with ELISA (choice B) is not as specific for Listeria and may yield false positives. Choice C, serological diagnosis with agglutination hype Widal, is not typically used for listeriosis diagnosis. Cultivating in cell cultures (choice D) is not the primary method for diagnosing listeriosis as it is less specific compared to cultivating on artificial media and biochemical identification.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is a key feature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acid-fast cell wall. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by its unique cell wall composition, containing high levels of mycolic acids which make it acid-fast. This property allows it to resist decolorization during acid-fast staining procedures. This distinguishes it from other bacteria. A: Producing spores is not a key feature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Spore formation is more commonly associated with bacterial species such as Bacillus and Clostridium. B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not Gram-negative. It is classified as acid-fast Gram-positive. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis does not produce toxins as a key feature. Its pathogenicity is more closely related to its ability to evade host immune responses and persist in host tissues.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has wound abscess. Bacteriological examination of the wound content revealed a gram- negative bacillus which forms semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance on the beef-extract agar. Culture has a specific odor of violets or jasmine. What type of pathogen was isolated from the patient's wound?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative bacillus indicates P. aeruginosa, known for causing wound infections. Step 2: Semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance are characteristic of P. aeruginosa. Step 3: Specific odor of violets or jasmine is a unique feature of P. aeruginosa. Therefore, the correct answer is A: P. aeruginosa. Summary: - B: P. vulgaris typically forms yellow colonies and doesn't have the characteristic odor. - C: S. aureus forms creamy white colonies, not blue-green, and has a distinct odor. - D: S. pyogenes forms grayish-white colonies and doesn't have the unique characteristics described.
Question 8 of 9
An outbreak of food poisoning was recorded in an urban settlement. The illness was diagnosed as botulism on the grounds of clinical presentations. What foodstuffs should be chosen for analysis in the first place in order to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinned food. Botulism is often caused by the botulinum toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum, which can be present in improperly canned foods. Analyzing tinned food allows for direct detection of the toxin or bacteria, confirming the diagnosis. Potatoes, pasteurized milk, and boiled meat are less likely sources of botulism compared to tinned food, making them less suitable for initial analysis in this case.
Question 9 of 9
Chemically an antigen may be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antigens can be composed of lipids, proteins, or polysaccharides. Antigens are molecules that can elicit an immune response in the body. They can be diverse in their chemical composition, leading to the recognition and response by the immune system. Therefore, the correct choice is D as antigens can be any of these chemical components. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they each represent a possible chemical composition of antigens, but the flexibility of antigens to be made up of any of these components makes D the most accurate choice.