ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of androgen to the female client. The nurse manager asks for the rationale. What is the best response by the new nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose androgens in females are used palliatively for certain breast cancers, especially hormone-sensitive ones, to suppress estrogen-driven tumor growth, easing symptoms in advanced disease. Athletic performance enhancement via androgens, while feasible, isn't clinically indicated and is illegal in regulated contexts. Brain cancer lacks evidence for androgen treatment, as it doesn't target neurological tumors. Sexual reassignment uses testosterone for masculinization, but high doses in clinical settings typically tie to cancer care, not transition. Breast cancer aligns with a recognized therapeutic use, leveraging androgens' anti-estrogenic effects, making it the most valid clinical rationale here.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is receiving escitalopram (Lexapro) for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. The patient asks the nurse, 'I am just nervous, not depressed. Why am I taking an antidepressant medicine?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI, boosts serotonin, easing both anxiety and depression-shared neurochemistry (e.g., limbic dysregulation), per psychiatry. Calling it masked depression assumes unstated symptoms. Doctor's choice plus safety is true but less explanatory. Disorders don't always coexist-serotonin explains use, answering directly.
Question 3 of 5
A client takes calcium three times a day in the form of supplements. The nurse will advise the client to take the drug
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium absorbs best with food-fat aids uptake, per pharmacokinetics-unlike empty stomach or tea (tannins bind). Zinc competes-separate dosing. Food optimizes, per guidance.
Question 4 of 5
A 29-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a regular yearly checkup. She has a history of a seizure disorder and has been taking an antiseizure medication for 8 years. She is also taking an oral contraceptive. She is in good health but complains that her gums seem to be overgrowing her teeth. Which of the following medications is likely responsible for her chief complaint?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of Phenytoin , an antiseizure drug. Estrogen and Progesterone in contraceptives don't cause this. Lamotrigine and Valproic acid (E) lack this effect. Phenytoin's long-term use induces gum overgrowth, fitting her 8-year history.
Question 5 of 5
A 17-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough and nasal congestion. He has been taking various prescription cough and cold medicines but did not know their names. A urine drug screen is positive for amphetamines. When confronted with this information, he vehemently denies amphetamine use. What is the best explanation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive amphetamine screen with cough/cold medicine use suggests a false positive from ephedrine . Ephedrine, in decongestants, cross-reacts with amphetamine assays. Codeine and marijuana don't. Lying or sample mix-up (E) are less likely given his denial and context. This common false positive explains the discrepancy.