ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
The newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of androgen to the female client. The nurse manager asks for the rationale. What is the best response by the new nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose androgen therapy in females is occasionally used as a palliative treatment for certain breast cancers, particularly hormone-sensitive types, where it suppresses estrogen-driven tumor growth, offering symptom relief in advanced stages. Using androgens for athletic performance enhancement, while possible due to their anabolic effects, isn't a clinical indication and is illegal in regulated settings. Brain cancer lacks evidence supporting androgen use, as it doesn't target neurological malignancies. Sexual reassignment involves testosterone for masculinization, but high doses in a clinical context typically align with cancer care, not transition protocols. The breast cancer rationale reflects a recognized, albeit niche, therapeutic use, leveraging androgens' anti-estrogenic properties to slow disease progression, making it the most defensible clinical justification in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
The adolescent is supposed to go to the school nurse at 12:00 to receive his medication for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). He often does not go for the medication. What best describes the nurse's understanding of this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adolescents prioritize peer image-skipping ADHD meds (e.g., Ritalin) at school likely stems from embarrassment, a developmental trait. Lack of understanding or forgetting is possible but less likely with routine. Conscious refusal needs evidence (e.g., verbal rejection). Embarrassment fits social sensitivity, guiding intervention.
Question 3 of 5
Which drug type is often used as a first-line treatment for depression due to its side effect profile?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
Recent studies into the pathogenesis of halothane-induced malignant hyperthermia indicate which of the following as the likely implicating cause?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) from halothane involves excitation-contraction coupling defects . MH, a genetic disorder, stems from ryanodine receptor (RYR1) mutations, causing uncontrolled calcium release in muscle, not drug toxicity . Sodium defects , oxygen deficits , or neural overmodulation (E) aren't implicated. This coupling defect triggers hypermetabolism, explaining MH's rapid onset with halothane exposure.
Question 5 of 5
A 55-year-old man with a 40 pack-year history of smoking develops agranulocytosis and some leukemic features. His physical examination of the heart, lungs, and abdomen are within normal limits. Should this disease relate to a potential toxic exposure, which of the following should be considered most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.