ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The new nurse is caring for six patients in this shift. After completing their assessments, the nurse asks where to begin in developing care plans for these patients. Which statement is an appropriate suggestion by another nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Begin with the highest priority diagnoses, then select appropriate interventions." Rationale: 1. Start with the highest priority diagnoses: Prioritizing care based on the patients' most critical needs ensures their safety and well-being. 2. Identify appropriate interventions: Select interventions that directly address the priority diagnoses to promote effective care delivery. 3. Tailor interventions to individual needs: By focusing on high-priority diagnoses, the nurse can personalize care plans for each patient. 4. Ensure efficient use of resources: Addressing critical issues first optimizes time and resources for the most impactful outcomes. Summary: A: Incorrect. Performing interventions based on time needed may not address the most critical patient needs. B: Incorrect. While scientific rationale is important, it should come after identifying priority diagnoses. C: Incorrect. Setting goals and outcomes should follow the identification of high-priority diagnoses for effective care planning.
Question 2 of 9
A patient visiting with family members in the waiting area tells the nurse “I don’t feel good, especially in the stomach.” What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to return to the room, so the nurse can inspect the abdomen. Rationale: 1. Patient safety: By examining the patient's abdomen, the nurse can assess for any signs of distress or potential medical issues. 2. Patient-centered care: It is essential to prioritize the patient's well-being by addressing their concerns promptly and appropriately. 3. Professional responsibility: Nurses are trained to assess and evaluate patient symptoms to provide necessary care and support. Summary: A: Requesting the family to leave does not address the patient's symptoms and may disrupt the patient's support system. C: Asking about bowel movements and offering food may not be appropriate if the patient is experiencing stomach discomfort. D: Offering food without proper assessment may worsen the patient's condition and is not recommended before a proper evaluation.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff finding would confirm that a female client has mastitis? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because mastitis typically presents with swollen, firm, and hard breasts due to inflammation and infection of the breast tissue. This occurs as a result of milk stasis and bacterial infection. Option A is incorrect because a crack in the nipple or areola can be indicative of nipple trauma or infection, not necessarily mastitis. Option B is incorrect because multiple lumps within the breast tissue may suggest fibrocystic changes or breast cancer, but not specifically mastitis. Option D is incorrect because enlargement of the axillary lymph nodes is more commonly seen in breast cancer, not mastitis.
Question 4 of 9
A female client recovers from a serious case of insect bites. What skin related advice must the nurse give to the client and all her family members to prevent the recurrence of the ailment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply insect repellent to clothing and exposed skin. This advice helps prevent insect bites, reducing the risk of recurrence. Insect repellent creates a barrier against insects, hence minimizing the chances of getting bitten. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the prevention of insect bites. Choice A is vague and does not provide a specific preventive measure. Choice C is incorrect as thick woollen clothing may not necessarily prevent insect bites. Choice D, sunscreen lotion, protects against UV rays, not insect bites.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is information the nurse would be correct in giving the patient about smoking and its effect on BP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is associated with stages 1 and 2 hypertension. Smoking is a major risk factor for developing hypertension, especially stages 1 and 2. Nicotine in cigarettes can lead to vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and overall elevated blood pressure. This information is crucial for patients to understand the direct impact of smoking on their blood pressure levels. Choice B is incorrect because smoking does indeed affect BP regulation by causing vasoconstriction and elevated heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as smoking actually causes vasoconstriction rather than vasodilation. Choice D is incorrect because smoking does lead to sustained elevation of blood pressure, especially in the long term.
Question 6 of 9
During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the client has breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is a classic sign of breast cancer. This finding is concerning as it indicates an abnormal growth that has invaded surrounding tissues. Dimpling occurs due to fibrotic changes pulling on the skin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A slight asymmetry of the breasts is common and not necessarily indicative of cancer. Bloody discharge from the nipple can be a sign of other conditions like intraductal papilloma. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle are likely benign fibrocystic changes.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drug Compliance. After a CVA (stroke), it is crucial for Mr. Dela Isla to understand and adhere to his prescribed medications. Medications help prevent further strokes and manage underlying conditions. Drug compliance ensures optimal treatment outcomes. Emergency Numbers (A) are important but not the priority post-stroke. Relaxation techniques (B) may be helpful but not as critical as medication adherence. Dietary prescription (D) is important but not as urgent as drug compliance in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Western blot test with ELISA. First, ELISA is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies. If positive, a confirmatory test like Western blot is needed to detect specific antibodies. Western blot is highly specific and confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. E-rosette immunofluorescence is not typically used for HIV diagnosis. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is used to monitor disease progression in HIV but does not confirm HIV infection. ELISA alone is not confirmatory; it needs to be followed by a more specific test like Western blot.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse has entered a client’s room to find the client diaphoretic (sweat-covered) and shivering, inferring that the client has a fever. How should the nurse best follow up this cue and inference?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure the client’s oral temperature. This is the best follow-up because it directly assesses the client's body temperature, providing objective data to confirm the presence of fever. It is essential to gather accurate information to guide appropriate interventions. Asking a colleague for assistance (B) may not address the immediate need for temperature assessment. Giving the client a clean gown and warm blankets (C) may provide comfort but does not address the need for temperature measurement. Obtaining an order for blood cultures (D) is not the initial priority when the client is showing signs of fever; temperature measurement is the first step in assessing the client's condition.