ATI RN
Pediatric Research Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The neurologist tests the 4th and 6th cranial nerves together by having a patient do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The neurologist tests the 4th and 6th cranial nerves together by having a patient follow his finger with his eyes. The 4th cranial nerve (trochlear nerve) innervates the superior oblique muscle, which primarily moves the eye downward and outward. The 6th cranial nerve (abducens nerve) innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which primarily moves the eye laterally. Testing these cranial nerves simultaneously by asking the patient to follow the neurologist's finger helps assess the coordination and function of both of these nerves, which are important for eye movement control.
Question 2 of 5
A 5-year old boy presents with afebrile generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting for 5 minutes. Previously he was healthy and had no such problem. On examination there is no abnormality. Your plan of management should be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a first-time generalized seizure, an immediate EEG and starting anticonvulsant therapy is prudent to prevent recurrence, especially if the EEG shows epileptiform activity.
Question 3 of 5
You are discussing physical child abuse with medical students; you state that fractures are common presentation and those that should raise suspicion for abuse include fractures that are unexplained, occurring in young, non-ambulatory children, or involve multiple bones. Of the following, the site of the fracture that is LESS specific for abuse is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fractures of the vertebrae are less specific for abuse compared to other sites like ribs, scapula, or skull, which are more characteristic of inflicted trauma.
Question 4 of 5
The LEAST important advice for a 2-month-old baby with excessive crying is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Changing formula may not address refusal due to developmental factors.
Question 5 of 5
A healthy 20-day-old male examination reveals a palpable liver margin below the right costal margin; lab findings: white blood count, 18700/mm3; hemoglobin, 8.8 g/dl; blast cells, 10%; the BEST approach for the management is consistent with acute myeloproliferative disorder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intensive chemotherapy is the standard approach for managing acute myeloproliferative disorders.