The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN

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Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. The nurse made an error in the assessment phase by not communicating the patient's condition promptly. Assessment involves collecting data and recognizing changes in the patient's condition. By not informing the nurse about feeling dizzy and light-headed, the nurse missed crucial information that could have indicated a deteriorating condition. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Diagnosis comes after assessment and involves analyzing data to identify the patient's problems. C: Implementation is the phase where nursing interventions are carried out based on the diagnosis. D: Evaluation is the final phase where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of interventions and outcomes.

Question 2 of 9

Hyperparathyroidism is caused by increased levels of thyroxine in blood plasma. A client with this endocrine dysfunction would experience:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hyperparathyroidism is not caused by increased levels of thyroxine but by overactivity of the parathyroid glands. This would lead to symptoms of heat intolerance due to increased metabolism and systolic hypertension due to the effects of excess parathyroid hormone on calcium levels. Choice B is incorrect because diastolic hypertension and widened pulse pressure are not typical symptoms of hyperparathyroidism. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common symptom of hyperparathyroidism. Choice D is incorrect because anorexia and hyper-excitability are not typical symptoms of hyperparathyroidism.

Question 3 of 9

What deficits would the nurse expect in a right-handed person experiencing a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Expressive aphasia and paralysis on the left side of the body. In a right-handed person, the left side of the brain controls language (Broca's area) and motor function for the right side of the body. A stroke affecting the left side of the cortex would lead to expressive aphasia (difficulty speaking) due to damage to Broca's area and paralysis on the right side of the body due to motor function impairment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the known neurological functions of the brain regions affected by the stroke.

Question 4 of 9

When evaluating the effectiveness of nursing interventions for sinusitis discomfort, which of the following does the nurse assess?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amount and color of sinus drainage. Assessing the amount and color of sinus drainage is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of nursing interventions for sinusitis discomfort as it indicates the presence of infection or inflammation. Changes in color or amount can signify improvement or worsening of the condition. WBC count (A) may indicate infection but doesn't directly reflect sinusitis discomfort. Capillary refill (B) assesses circulation, not sinusitis. Comfort level (D) is subjective and can vary among individuals, making it less reliable for assessing the effectiveness of interventions.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the ff is a reason for providing early discharge instructions and making arrangements for home care for clients undergoing mastectomy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Most clients are not hospitalized long after a mastectomy - Correct. This is because mastectomy is often performed as an outpatient procedure, and clients are discharged home shortly after surgery. Step 2: The adverse effects of mastectomy are not immediate - Incorrect. Adverse effects may occur post-surgery, but early discharge is not solely due to immediate adverse effects. Step 3: The wound of the surgery is not highly contagious - Incorrect. Mastectomy wounds are not contagious, and isolation precautions are not necessary. Step 4: Suicidal tendencies in women undergoing mastectomy are not high - Incorrect. While emotional support is crucial, early discharge is not primarily due to suicidal tendencies. Summary: Choice C is correct because mastectomy clients are typically not hospitalized long, making early discharge instructions and home care arrangements necessary. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary reason for early discharge and home care planning.

Question 6 of 9

To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps to manage these side effects and improve the patient's comfort and compliance with treatment. Antibiotics (choice B) are used to treat bacterial infections and are not directly related to combating chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (choice C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (choice D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting.

Question 7 of 9

After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.

Question 8 of 9

An adult suffered a diving accident and is being brought in by an ambulance intubated and on backboard with a cervical collar. What is the first action the nurse would take on arrival in the hospital?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Upon arrival, checking the lungs for equal breath sounds bilaterally is the first action. This is crucial to assess airway patency and breathing effectiveness in a patient with a history of diving accident and intubation. Ensuring proper oxygenation takes precedence over other actions. Taking vital signs, inserting an IV line, and performing a neurologic check can wait until airway and breathing are adequately assessed.

Question 9 of 9

Mr. RR is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of brain tumor. Mr. RR’s doctor is very much concerned about the possibility of increased intracranial pressure. The following is the most reliable index of cerebral state:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Level of consciousness is the most reliable index of cerebral state because it directly reflects the functioning of the brain. Changes in consciousness can indicate alterations in cerebral perfusion and potential increases in intracranial pressure. Step 2: Unilateral papillary dilatation may suggest an increase in intracranial pressure, but it is not as reliable as level of consciousness in assessing overall cerebral state. Step 3: Increased systolic blood pressure can occur due to various reasons and may not specifically indicate changes in intracranial pressure. Step 4: Decreased pulse pressure may be related to factors such as hypovolemia or cardiac conditions, but it is not a direct indicator of cerebral state or intracranial pressure.

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