The muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:

Questions 46

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Question 1 of 9

The muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: sternomastoid and trapezius. CN XI, also known as the spinal accessory nerve, innervates the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles. The sternomastoid muscle is responsible for neck rotation and flexion, while the trapezius muscle is responsible for shoulder movement and stability. The other choices are incorrect because the omohyoid and sternomandibular muscles are not innervated by CN XI. The spinal accessory nerve does not innervate the omohyoid muscle, and the sternomandibular muscle is not a recognized muscle in the neck. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

Question 2 of 9

During an assessment of a 20-year-old Aboriginal patient, the nurse notices that he has dry, flaky cerumen in his ear canal. What is the significance of this finding?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because dry, flaky cerumen can indicate a change in cilia in the ear canal, potentially leading to conductive hearing loss. This warrants further assessment by the nurse to ensure the patient's aural health is not compromised. A: Eczema lesions typically present differently and are not directly related to dry cerumen. B: While hygiene can contribute to cerumen buildup, dry, flaky cerumen alone does not necessarily indicate poor hygiene. C: Dry, flaky cerumen is not considered a normal finding in a healthy ear and should prompt further evaluation.

Question 3 of 9

A patient has come in for an examination and states,"I have this spot on my cheek here in front of my ear lobe. The spot seems to be getting bigger and is very tender. What do you think it is?" The nurse notes swelling below the angle of the jaw and suspects that it could be an inflammation of his:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. The parotid gland is located in front of the ear lobe, and swelling below the angle of the jaw is a common sign of parotid gland inflammation. The tenderness and increasing size of the spot also point towards a parotid gland issue. The other choices, such as thyroid gland (A), occipital lymph node (C), and submental lymph node (D), are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the specific symptoms described by the patient. It is essential to consider the location and function of each structure to arrive at the correct diagnosis.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is examining a patient's ears and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of the following statements about cerumen is correct?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear. Cerumen, commonly known as earwax, acts as a natural barrier to prevent dust, debris, and microorganisms from entering the ear canal. It also helps to lubricate the skin in the ear canal and prevent dryness and itching. Choice A is incorrect because sticky, honey-colored cerumen is not necessarily a sign of infection; it can occur due to various factors. Choice B is incorrect as the presence of cerumen does not solely indicate poor hygiene; everyone produces earwax regardless of hygiene practices. Choice D is incorrect as cerumen can sometimes block the ear canal and impair sound transmission rather than aid it.

Question 5 of 9

When assessing pupillary light reflex, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because shining a light across the pupil from the side allows for both direct (ipsilateral) and consensual (contralateral) pupillary constriction to be observed. This technique helps to assess the integrity of the cranial nerves involved in the pupillary light reflex (CN II and III). Direct constriction occurs in the eye exposed to the light, while consensual constriction occurs in the opposite eye. This comprehensive assessment ensures that both pupils are responding appropriately to light stimulation, providing a more accurate evaluation of the reflex. Choice A is incorrect because inspecting for pupillary constriction from directly in front may not adequately assess for consensual constriction in the opposite eye. Choice B is incorrect as asking the patient to follow the penlight in eight directions does not specifically target the pupillary light reflex. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on accommodation rather than the pupillary light reflex.

Question 6 of 9

During an otoscopic examination, the nurse notes an area of black and white dots on the tympanic membrane and ear canal wall. What does this finding suggest?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presence of black and white dots on the tympanic membrane and ear canal wall during an otoscopic examination suggests a yeast or fungal infection. This is because yeast or fungal infections commonly present as white or black dots in the ear canal. Malignancy would typically manifest as abnormal growths or masses, not dots. Viral infections usually do not present as specific dots on the tympanic membrane. Blood in the middle ear would appear as red or pinkish fluid behind the eardrum, not as black and white dots. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Yeast or fungal infection.

Question 7 of 9

A patient in her first trimester of pregnancy is diagnosed with rubella. Which of the following indicates the significance of this in relation to the infant's hearing?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because rubella can indeed damage the organ of Corti in the fetus, which is responsible for hearing. During the first trimester, when the hearing structures are forming, any damage to the organ of Corti can result in impaired hearing for the infant. Choice A is incorrect because rubella can impact the fetus, including the organs responsible for hearing. Choice C is incorrect because rubella can be harmful to the fetus at any stage of pregnancy, not just the second trimester. Choice D is incorrect because CN VIII (the vestibulocochlear nerve) is not directly affected by rubella, rather it is the organ of Corti that is damaged.

Question 8 of 9

A patient has been diagnosed with"strep throat." Which complication may occur without treatment?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever is a possible complication of untreated strep throat due to an abnormal immune response to the streptococcal infection. This can lead to inflammation in various parts of the body, particularly the heart, joints, skin, and brain. If left untreated, rheumatic fever can cause serious long-term damage to the heart valves. The other choices are incorrect because Rubella is a viral infection causing a rash, Leukoplakia is a precancerous condition of the mouth, and Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection characterized by a red rash. These conditions are not directly associated with untreated strep throat.

Question 9 of 9

While performing an examination of a 3-year-old with a suspected ear infection, the nurse would:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Performing the otoscopic examination at the end of the assessment is the best approach for a 3-year-old with a suspected ear infection. This allows the child to become familiar with the nurse and the environment, reducing anxiety and increasing cooperation. It also prevents the child from becoming upset early in the examination, making it easier to complete the assessment. Choice A is incorrect because omitting the otoscopic exam based on the presence of a fever could lead to a missed diagnosis. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the ear up and back before inserting the speculum is not recommended as it may cause discomfort and increase resistance from the child. Choice C is incorrect as having the mother leave the room may increase the child's anxiety and make the examination more challenging.

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