ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The mother of a newborn asks the nurse when her baby's eyesight will be fully developed. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because vision is not fully developed until around 2 years of age. Newborns have limited visual capabilities and their visual acuity improves over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infants do not develop the ability to focus on an object at 8 months (B), develop coordinated eye movements by 3 months (C), or have uncoordinated eye movements in the first year of life (D). These statements do not accurately reflect the timeline of visual development in infants.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient. In which of the following would this be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: In an individual who is severely dehydrated. Decreased skin turgor is a clinical sign of dehydration, indicating loss of skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Severe dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor as the skin loses its ability to recoil when pinched. In cases of severe obesity (choice A), skin turgor is usually normal or increased due to excess adipose tissue. During childhood growth spurts (choice B), skin turgor is typically unaffected. Connective tissue disorders like scleroderma (choice D) can lead to changes in skin texture and appearance, but not necessarily decreased skin turgor.
Question 3 of 9
When the retina is examined, which of the following is considered a normal finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An optic disc that is a yellow-orange colour. This is a normal finding because the optic disc typically appears yellow-orange due to the presence of nerve fibers. The yellow-orange color is due to the absence of blood vessels in this area. This is a normal anatomical characteristic of the optic disc. Option B is incorrect because blurred optic disc margins can indicate pathology such as papilledema. Option C is incorrect because the presence of pigmented crescents in the macular area can indicate a condition like myopic degeneration, not a normal finding. Option D is incorrect because the macula is normally located temporally, not nasally, to the optic disc.
Question 4 of 9
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The nurse suspects damage to CN _____ and starts the examination by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (XI; asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance). This is the correct choice because the nurse suspects damage to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. Asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance tests the function of the trapezius muscle, which is innervated by CN XI. This examination helps to assess the integrity of the nerve and its ability to innervate the muscle. Palpating the anterior and posterior triangles (choice A) is not specific to CN XI function. Percussing the sternomastoid and submandibular neck muscles (choice C) is related to CN XII, not CN XI. Assessing for a positive Romberg's sign (choice D) is not relevant to testing the function of CN XI.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse notices that a patient's submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the nurse would assess the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: supraclavicular area. Enlarged submental lymph nodes can indicate a systemic issue. Assessing the supraclavicular area is important as it contains Virchow's node, which may indicate malignancy or metastasis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically target the area most likely to reveal significant findings related to the enlarged submental lymph nodes.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is the best way to palpate the lymph nodes in the neck?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using the index and middle fingers to palpate with gentle pressure in a rotating pattern allows for a thorough examination of the lymph nodes without causing discomfort or injury. This method helps to assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the nodes accurately. It also enables the examiner to detect any abnormalities such as enlargement or tenderness. A is incorrect as using strong pressure can be painful and lead to inaccurate assessment. B is incorrect as strong pressure can be harmful and may not provide the necessary sensitivity to detect abnormalities. C is incorrect as pinching each node can be uncomfortable and may not allow for a systematic examination of the lymph nodes.
Question 7 of 9
A visitor from Poland who does not speak English appears somewhat apprehensive while the nurse is examining his neck. He would probably be most comfortable if the nurse were examining his thyroid:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates cultural sensitivity and respect for the patient's comfort. Placing the nurse's thumbs on either side of the trachea and tilting the patient's head forward is a non-threatening and non-invasive approach to examining the thyroid. This position allows the nurse to assess the thyroid gland without causing discomfort or intimidation to the patient. Choice A is incorrect because having the nurse's hands placed firmly around the neck from behind may be perceived as invasive and threatening to the patient. Choice B is incorrect because having the nurse's thumbs on the patient's neck with eyes averted toward the ceiling may come across as awkward and unprofessional. Choice D is incorrect because tilting the patient's head backward can cause discomfort and may not be culturally sensitive as it can be perceived as invasive.
Question 8 of 9
A mother is concerned that her 18-month-old already has 12 teeth. She is wondering if this is normal for a child of this age. The nurse's best response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. At 18 months, it is expected for a child to have erupted around 16 deciduous teeth. The rationale for this answer is based on dental development milestones. By age 3, most children should have their full set of 20 primary teeth. Therefore, the nurse should inform the mother that it is normal for an 18-month-old to have around 16 teeth. Choice A is incorrect as comparing the mother's teeth at that age is irrelevant to the child's dental development. Choice B is incorrect because all 20 deciduous teeth should be present by age 3, not 4. Choice C is incorrect as having 12 teeth at 18 months is below the expected number of erupted teeth for that age.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with excruciating pain on one side of his head, especially around his eye, forehead, and cheek, that occurs once or twice each day and lasts about 30 minutes to 2 hours. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: cluster headaches. Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating pain on one side of the head, often around the eye, forehead, and cheek. They occur once or twice each day and last for a relatively short duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours. This pattern of symptoms aligns with the typical presentation of cluster headaches. Incorrect Choices: A: Hypertension is unlikely to present with such specific unilateral head pain patterns and timing. C: Tension headaches typically present with more diffuse, mild to moderate pain and are not typically associated with eye, forehead, or cheek pain. D: Migraine headaches usually last longer than 2 hours and are commonly associated with other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound.