The mother of a newborn asks the nurse when her baby's eyesight will be fully developed. The nurse should say:

Questions 46

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Question 1 of 9

The mother of a newborn asks the nurse when her baby's eyesight will be fully developed. The nurse should say:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because vision is not fully developed until around 2 years of age. Newborns have limited visual capabilities and their visual acuity improves over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infants do not develop the ability to focus on an object at 8 months (B), develop coordinated eye movements by 3 months (C), or have uncoordinated eye movements in the first year of life (D). These statements do not accurately reflect the timeline of visual development in infants.

Question 2 of 9

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The nurse suspects damage to CN _____ and starts the examination by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (XI; asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance). This is the correct choice because the nurse suspects damage to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. Asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance tests the function of the trapezius muscle, which is innervated by CN XI. This examination helps to assess the integrity of the nerve and its ability to innervate the muscle. Palpating the anterior and posterior triangles (choice A) is not specific to CN XI function. Percussing the sternomastoid and submandibular neck muscles (choice C) is related to CN XII, not CN XI. Assessing for a positive Romberg's sign (choice D) is not relevant to testing the function of CN XI.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following best describes the test to assess the function of cranial nerve (CN) X?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because cranial nerve X, also known as the vagus nerve, controls the movement of the soft palate and uvula. Asking the patient to say "ahhh" assesses the function of CN X as the soft palate and uvula should elevate symmetrically. A: Observing the patient's ability to articulate specific words does not specifically test CN X function. B: Assessing movement of the hard palate and uvula with the gag reflex primarily tests CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). C: Having the patient stick out the tongue and observing for tremors or pulling to one side primarily tests CN XII (hypoglossal nerve).

Question 4 of 9

What would be a normal finding when assessing the lacrimal apparatus during an eye examination?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The presence of tears along the inner canthus. This is a normal finding during an eye examination as tears are produced by the lacrimal gland and drain into the nasolacrimal duct, which exits at the inner canthus. This indicates proper tear production and drainage. Incorrect choices: B: A blocked nasolacrimal duct in a newborn infant - This would present as excessive tearing and discharge. C: A slight swelling over the upper lid and along the bony orbit if the patient has a cold - This could indicate inflammation due to infection. D: The absence of drainage from the puncta when the inner orbital rim is pressed - This would suggest an issue with the lacrimal drainage system.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse be most concerned about?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, an ulceration with rolled edges on the side of the tongue, as it could indicate a possible malignancy such as oral cancer. The presence of rolled edges is concerning for malignancy due to the irregularity in shape and potential for rapid growth. This finding should be promptly investigated to rule out cancer. A: A painful vesicle inside the cheek for 2 days is likely a benign condition such as a canker sore. B: The presence of moist, nontender Stenson's ducts is a normal finding in the mouth. C: Stippled gingival margins that adhere snugly to the teeth could indicate a healthy gum tissue attachment. In summary, the other choices are less concerning as they are either benign or normal variations, while the presence of an ulceration with rolled edges raises significant suspicion for malignancy.

Question 6 of 9

A mother brings her 2-month-old daughter in for an examination and says,"My daughter rolled over and hit her head on the wall, and now I have noticed that she has this spot that is soft on the top of her head. Is there something terribly wrong?" The nurse's response would be:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The "soft spot" on a baby's head, also known as the fontanelle, is a normal anatomical feature that allows for the growth and development of the baby's brain during the first year of life. It is a gap between the bones of the skull that eventually closes as the baby grows. Response A is incorrect because the fontanelle is not related to maternal dietary intake during pregnancy. Response B is incorrect as craniosynostosis is a condition where the sutures of the skull close prematurely, leading to abnormal head shape. Response C is incorrect as cretinism and congenital hypothyroidism are not typically associated with the fontanelle. Overall, the correct response, D, provides an accurate explanation of the normal function of the fontanelle in a newborn's development.

Question 7 of 9

A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse is performing an eye assessment on an 80-year-old patient. Which of the following findings is considered abnormal?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because unequal pupillary constriction in response to light is abnormal and may indicate nerve damage or neurological issues. A: Decrease in tear production is common with age. C: Arcus senilis is a normal age-related change. D: Loss of hair at the outer line of the eyebrows is also a common age-related change.

Question 9 of 9

A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.

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