ATI RN
Pediatric GI Disorders Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The MOST specific late radiographic feature of scurvy is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Trummerfeld at the metaphysis. In scurvy, there is inadequate collagen synthesis leading to weakened connective tissue in the body, including the growth plates of bones. Trummerfeld zones appear as radiolucent bands at the metaphysis due to impaired mineralization, reflecting the disruption of normal bone formation in scurvy. Option A, groundglass appearance of the epiphysis, is seen in conditions like osteopetrosis, not scurvy. Option B, pencil zone outlining the white line of Frankelat, is not a characteristic feature of scurvy but can be seen in conditions like rickets. Option D, Pelkan spur at the cortical ends, is associated with osteomyelitis, not scurvy. Educationally, understanding radiographic features of scurvy is crucial for pediatric healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and manage this condition. Recognizing specific radiographic signs can aid in early intervention and prevent long-term complications in children with scurvy. It also highlights the importance of considering nutritional deficiencies in the differential diagnosis of pediatric patients presenting with musculoskeletal symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
In evaluating the cause of rickets, which test is convenient if malabsorption is a consideration?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rickets is a condition primarily caused by a lack of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, leading to weakened or soft bones in children. When considering malabsorption as a potential cause of rickets, the most appropriate test to evaluate this is the hydrogen breath test (Option D). This test helps in diagnosing conditions like lactose intolerance or bacterial overgrowth in the small intestine, both of which can lead to malabsorption issues. Option A, PT (Prothrombin Time), is a test used to measure blood clotting ability and is not directly related to evaluating malabsorption in rickets. Option B, stool pH, is more useful in assessing conditions like diarrhea or gastrointestinal infections, rather than malabsorption. Option C, a barium study, is a radiologic test that helps visualize the gastrointestinal tract's structure and function but may not specifically address malabsorption concerns related to rickets. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate diagnostic tests for pediatric GI disorders, such as malabsorption leading to rickets, is crucial for healthcare professionals working with children. By knowing which tests are most relevant in specific clinical scenarios, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat underlying conditions, ensuring better outcomes for pediatric patients.
Question 3 of 5
The baby that is least vulnerable to develop vitamin K bleeding tendency is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is option A) a neonate of a healthy mother that started immediate breastfeeding. This baby is least vulnerable to develop vitamin K bleeding tendency because breast milk naturally contains vitamin K, which helps prevent bleeding disorders in newborns. Immediate breastfeeding ensures prompt intake of vitamin K, reducing the risk of deficiency. Option B) a nine-month-old infant with prolonged history of diarrhea and multiple antibiotics therapy is vulnerable to vitamin K deficiency due to malabsorption from diarrhea and antibiotics that can disrupt gut flora, affecting vitamin K production. Option C) a six-hour neonate of an epileptic mother that received phenobarbital during pregnancy is at risk because phenobarbital interferes with vitamin K metabolism, increasing the likelihood of bleeding disorders. Option D) a neonate in the intensive care unit receiving total parenteral nutrition lacks the natural intake of vitamin K found in breast milk, predisposing them to vitamin K deficiency and bleeding tendencies. In an educational context, understanding the factors that influence vitamin K levels in newborns is crucial for healthcare providers to ensure appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding disorders. Recognizing the importance of immediate breastfeeding and the risks associated with certain medications or conditions can guide clinical decision-making to optimize the health outcomes of infants.
Question 4 of 5
All of the following are true about cyclic vomiting EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question about cyclic vomiting, the correct answer is D) it is associated with nystagmus. Cyclic vomiting syndrome is a disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of severe vomiting with normal periods of health in between. Nystagmus, which refers to involuntary eye movements, is not typically associated with cyclic vomiting. Option A is incorrect because the onset of cyclic vomiting is typically before the age of 3, not between 3 and 5 years. Option B is also incorrect as episodes of cyclic vomiting can last from a few hours to several days, not specifically 2-3 days. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific criteria regarding the number of emesis episodes per hour to diagnose cyclic vomiting. From an educational standpoint, understanding the key characteristics of cyclic vomiting syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. Recognizing the symptoms and differentiating them from other gastrointestinal disorders is essential for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. By knowing that nystagmus is not a typical feature of cyclic vomiting, healthcare providers can make more informed clinical decisions.
Question 5 of 5
A 10-year-old presents with dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, and failure to thrive. Chest radiograph reveals bronchiectasis. The most likely diagnosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. In this case, the child's symptoms of dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, failure to thrive, and bronchiectasis on chest radiograph are indicative of cystic fibrosis. The hallmark of cystic fibrosis is the production of thick, sticky mucus that can block the airways and pancreatic ducts, leading to respiratory and digestive issues. Option B) chalasia is likely a typographical error, as the correct term is achalasia (Option C). Achalasia is a disorder of the esophagus characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax. While achalasia can present with dysphagia, it does not typically lead to bronchiectasis or failure to thrive. Option D) foreign body is unlikely in this case as the symptoms are chronic and not acute, and the presence of bronchiectasis suggests a chronic underlying condition like cystic fibrosis rather than a foreign body obstruction. Educational Context: Understanding pediatric GI disorders is crucial for healthcare professionals who work with children. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of conditions like cystic fibrosis early can lead to prompt diagnosis and treatment, improving patient outcomes. It is essential to differentiate between various pediatric GI disorders based on clinical presentations, diagnostic findings, and understanding of the pathophysiology of each condition. This case highlights the importance of considering cystic fibrosis in a child presenting with respiratory and gastrointestinal symptoms.