ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
The most significant form of meningitis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is the most significant form due to its potential severity and rapid progression, requiring urgent medical intervention with antibiotics. Bacterial meningitis can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death if left untreated. Septic meningitis (choice B) refers to meningitis caused by a systemic infection spreading to the meninges. Aseptic meningitis (choice C) is typically viral or non-bacterial in origin, usually milder than bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis (choice D) is less severe than bacterial meningitis and often resolves on its own without specific treatment.
Question 2 of 9
The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses a patient's level of consciousness using these three factors. Eye opening measures arousal, verbal response assesses communication abilities, and motor response evaluates motor function. In the case of J.E., since he is alert and oriented, his eye opening is intact. His ability to communicate verbally and move his limbs appropriately would be crucial in determining his neurological status. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not include the necessary assessment factor of eye opening. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "response to pain" instead of verbal response, which is a key component of the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Question 3 of 9
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V Pap test finding indicates severe abnormalities, such as high-grade dysplasia or carcinoma in situ. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to undergo a biopsy as soon as possible to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a class V result is not normal and requires immediate follow-up, rather than waiting or repeating the Pap test at a later time.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following BP changes alerts the nurse to increasing ICP, and should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Widening pulse pressure. This indicates increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) as it signifies a significant difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. A widening pulse pressure is a key sign of impending herniation and requires immediate intervention. A: Gradual increase does not provide a clear indication of acute changes in ICP. C: Rapid drop followed by gradual increase may suggest other conditions and is not specific to increasing ICP. D: Rapid fluctuations may occur in various scenarios and do not specifically point to increasing ICP. In summary, a widening pulse pressure is the most critical and specific indicator of increasing ICP among the choices provided.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This is a distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Acne (A), diarrhea (B), and heartburn (D) are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are less likely side effects.
Question 6 of 9
What part of the nursing diagnosis statement suggests the nursing interventions to be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Etiology of the problem. In a nursing diagnosis statement, the etiology describes the underlying cause or contributing factors to the identified problem. This is crucial as it guides the selection of appropriate nursing interventions aimed at addressing the root cause of the issue. By addressing the etiology, nurses can implement interventions that will effectively treat the problem. Choice A (Problem statement) simply identifies the issue without providing insight into its cause. Choice B (Defining characteristics) lists the signs and symptoms of the problem but doesn't directly inform the interventions needed. Choice D (Outcomes criteria) outlines the expected results of the interventions but doesn't directly suggest which interventions to implement. Thus, C is the correct choice as it directly influences the selection of appropriate nursing interventions.
Question 7 of 9
When caring for an anxious patient with dyspnea, which of the ff. nursing actions is most helpful to include in the plan of care to relieve anxiety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staying at patient's bedside. This is the most helpful nursing action because it provides reassurance and support to the anxious patient experiencing dyspnea. By staying at the bedside, the nurse can monitor the patient closely, provide immediate assistance if needed, and offer a calming presence. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Increasing activity levels may worsen the dyspnea and anxiety of the patient. B: Pulling the privacy curtain does not directly address the patient's anxiety or dyspnea. D: Closing the patient's door may make the patient feel isolated and increase anxiety. In summary, staying at the patient's bedside is the most effective nursing action as it addresses both the physical and emotional needs of the anxious patient with dyspnea.
Question 8 of 9
Charles is started on chemotherapy, which is aimed at restoring dopaminergic activities. An example of such a drug is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dopar. Dopar is a drug that increases dopamine levels by converting into dopamine in the brain. This directly restores dopaminergic activities. Artane (A) is an anticholinergic used for Parkinson's symptoms, Elavil (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Benadryl (C) is an antihistamine, none of which directly target dopaminergic activities like Dopar does.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions is taken as a precautionary measure if shock develops when a client with a spinal cord injury is hospitalized?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An IV line is inserted to provide access to a vein. In shock, adequate intravenous access is crucial to administer fluids and medications rapidly. This helps stabilize the client's condition by restoring blood volume and improving circulation. Choice B is incorrect as immobilization is not a primary intervention for shock in this scenario. Choice C, traction, is not appropriate for managing shock but rather for stabilizing spinal cord injuries. Choice D, using a turning frame, is not relevant to managing shock and does not address the immediate need for fluid resuscitation.