The most significant form of meningitis is:

Questions 67

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Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions

Question 1 of 9

The most significant form of meningitis is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is the most significant form due to its potential severity and rapid progression, requiring urgent medical intervention with antibiotics. Bacterial meningitis can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death if left untreated. Septic meningitis (choice B) refers to meningitis caused by a systemic infection spreading to the meninges. Aseptic meningitis (choice C) is typically viral or non-bacterial in origin, usually milder than bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis (choice D) is less severe than bacterial meningitis and often resolves on its own without specific treatment.

Question 2 of 9

Antihistamines are used cautiously in older men with prostatic hypertrophy for which of the ff reasons?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding. Antihistamines can worsen urinary symptoms in men with prostatic hypertrophy by causing urinary retention. This is due to the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines, which can lead to decreased bladder contraction and difficulty in voiding. Increased drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of antihistamines but is not specific to older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice C, greater risk of cardiac arrest, is not directly related to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice D, lower autoimmune response in clients with AIDS, is unrelated to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the ff instructions should a nurse give a client with Hodgkin’s disease who is at risk of impaired skin integrity? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Keeping the neck in midline helps prevent compression of the lymphatic vessels in the neck, reducing the risk of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease. Step 2: This position also helps maintain proper blood flow and lymphatic drainage in the neck area. Step 3: Trimming nails short, using mild soap, and supporting bony prominences are not directly related to preventing impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the specific risk factor of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices are not as relevant to this particular concern.

Question 4 of 9

A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because bodily fluids and excretions (urine, feces, vomitus) can become contaminated with radiation from the implant. Therefore, they should be considered highly radioactive and handled appropriately. Choice B is incorrect because the client may remain radioactive for a longer period than 10 days post-implant removal. Choice C is incorrect because soiled linens should be handled according to radiation safety protocols and removed promptly. Choice D is incorrect because bed rest is not necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider; the client should be encouraged to move around as tolerated to prevent complications.

Question 5 of 9

Charles is started on chemotherapy, which is aimed at restoring dopaminergic activities. An example of such a drug is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dopar. Dopar is a drug that increases dopamine levels by converting into dopamine in the brain. This directly restores dopaminergic activities. Artane (A) is an anticholinergic used for Parkinson's symptoms, Elavil (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Benadryl (C) is an antihistamine, none of which directly target dopaminergic activities like Dopar does.

Question 6 of 9

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory acidosis. Aspirin can lead to respiratory acidosis due to its effect on the respiratory center in the brainstem. It causes hyperventilation, leading to respiratory alkalosis initially, followed by respiratory acidosis as compensation mechanism fails. Weight gain is not a typical adverse reaction of aspirin. Fine motor tremors are not associated with aspirin therapy. Bilateral hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect of aspirin overdose, not prolonged therapy.

Question 7 of 9

The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses a patient's level of consciousness using these three factors. Eye opening measures arousal, verbal response assesses communication abilities, and motor response evaluates motor function. In the case of J.E., since he is alert and oriented, his eye opening is intact. His ability to communicate verbally and move his limbs appropriately would be crucial in determining his neurological status. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not include the necessary assessment factor of eye opening. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "response to pain" instead of verbal response, which is a key component of the Glasgow Coma Scale.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following BP changes alerts the nurse to increasing ICP, and should be reported immediately?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Widening pulse pressure. This indicates increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) as it signifies a significant difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. A widening pulse pressure is a key sign of impending herniation and requires immediate intervention. A: Gradual increase does not provide a clear indication of acute changes in ICP. C: Rapid drop followed by gradual increase may suggest other conditions and is not specific to increasing ICP. D: Rapid fluctuations may occur in various scenarios and do not specifically point to increasing ICP. In summary, a widening pulse pressure is the most critical and specific indicator of increasing ICP among the choices provided.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse will assess a loss of ability in which of the following areas?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balance. Loss of ability in balance can indicate various health issues like neurological disorders or musculoskeletal problems. The nurse can assess this by observing the patient's gait, balance while standing, and coordination. Speech (B) relates to communication abilities, judgment (C) involves decision-making skills, and endurance (D) is related to stamina and physical capacity, which are not directly linked to loss of ability.

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