ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
The most significant form of meningitis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is the most significant form due to its potential severity and rapid progression, requiring urgent medical intervention with antibiotics. Bacterial meningitis can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death if left untreated. Septic meningitis (choice B) refers to meningitis caused by a systemic infection spreading to the meninges. Aseptic meningitis (choice C) is typically viral or non-bacterial in origin, usually milder than bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis (choice D) is less severe than bacterial meningitis and often resolves on its own without specific treatment.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination on the same day each month to establish a routine, making it easier to remember and detect any changes. This consistency helps in early detection of abnormalities. Incorrect Choices: A: Doing it at the end of the menstrual cycle may not be consistent due to varying cycle lengths. B: Doing it on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle may not be practical and could lead to missing potential abnormalities. D: Doing it immediately after her menstrual period may not provide a consistent schedule for self-examination.
Question 3 of 9
Which nursing intervention is appropriate for the nurse to take when setting up supplies for a client who requires a blood transfusion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because priming the tubing of the blood administration set with 0.9% NS solution ensures that there are no air bubbles in the tubing, preventing air embolism when the blood transfusion starts. This step also ensures that the blood flows smoothly and prevents clotting in the tubing. Choice A is incorrect because adding IV medication in the blood bag can lead to incompatibility issues and should not be done without proper verification and approval. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the blood bag at room temperature for an hour can lead to bacterial growth in the blood, increasing the risk of infection when transfused. Choice D is unrelated to setting up supplies for a blood transfusion and does not address the immediate nursing intervention required in this situation.
Question 4 of 9
The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses a patient's level of consciousness using these three factors. Eye opening measures arousal, verbal response assesses communication abilities, and motor response evaluates motor function. In the case of J.E., since he is alert and oriented, his eye opening is intact. His ability to communicate verbally and move his limbs appropriately would be crucial in determining his neurological status. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not include the necessary assessment factor of eye opening. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "response to pain" instead of verbal response, which is a key component of the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Question 5 of 9
In assisting a physician to perform a thoracentesis to Mr. Sy, how should the nurse postion a patient with pleural effusion of the left lung?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sitting at the side of the bed with both arms resting on a locked overbed table. This position allows for better lung expansion and easier access to the thoracic cavity during the procedure. Sitting position helps in maximizing lung volume and facilitates drainage of pleural effusion. Arms resting on a locked overbed table helps the patient maintain a stable position and reduces the risk of movement during the procedure. Other choices are incorrect because supine position (A) may not allow for optimal lung expansion, high fowler's position (C) may not provide easy access to the thoracic cavity, and semi-fowlers position (D) may not facilitate efficient drainage of pleural effusion.
Question 6 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory acidosis. Aspirin can lead to respiratory acidosis due to its effect on the respiratory center in the brainstem. It causes hyperventilation, leading to respiratory alkalosis initially, followed by respiratory acidosis as compensation mechanism fails. Weight gain is not a typical adverse reaction of aspirin. Fine motor tremors are not associated with aspirin therapy. Bilateral hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect of aspirin overdose, not prolonged therapy.
Question 7 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin (Ecotrin), 600mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if which adverse drug reaction occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinnitus. Aspirin can cause tinnitus (ringing in the ears) as an adverse drug reaction, which can indicate potential ototoxicity. Tinnitus is an important side effect that should be reported promptly to the physician to prevent further auditory complications. Dysuria (A), leg cramps (C), and constipation (D) are not typically associated with aspirin use and are less urgent compared to tinnitus. Reporting these side effects may still be necessary but are not as critical as tinnitus in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
What part of the nursing diagnosis statement suggests the nursing interventions to be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Etiology of the problem. In a nursing diagnosis statement, the etiology describes the underlying cause or contributing factors to the identified problem. This is crucial as it guides the selection of appropriate nursing interventions aimed at addressing the root cause of the issue. By addressing the etiology, nurses can implement interventions that will effectively treat the problem. Choice A (Problem statement) simply identifies the issue without providing insight into its cause. Choice B (Defining characteristics) lists the signs and symptoms of the problem but doesn't directly inform the interventions needed. Choice D (Outcomes criteria) outlines the expected results of the interventions but doesn't directly suggest which interventions to implement. Thus, C is the correct choice as it directly influences the selection of appropriate nursing interventions.
Question 9 of 9
If a patient has severe hyperkalemia, it is possible to administer calcium gluconate intravenously to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Antagonize the action of K on the heart Rationale: 1. Calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac cell membranes during hyperkalemia. 2. By antagonizing the effects of potassium on the heart, it helps prevent life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. 3. It does not lower potassium levels immediately or prevent transient renal failure. 4. Administering calcium gluconate is specific to addressing the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, not renal or overall potassium reduction.