ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
The MOST significant contributory factor to the development of lung cancer is ________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most significant contributory factor to the development of lung cancer is being a cigarette smoker. Cigarette smoking is directly linked to approximately 85% of lung cancer cases. The harmful substances in tobacco smoke, such as carcinogens, damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer over time. Smokers are at a significantly higher risk of developing lung cancer compared to non-smokers. Therefore, being a cigarette smoker is the primary and most influential risk factor for developing lung cancer.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a tumor compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pituitary adenoma is the most likely neurological condition responsible for the described symptoms of acute onset severe headache, visual disturbances, and altered mental status when a tumor is found compressing the optic chiasm. Pituitary adenomas are benign tumors arising from the pituitary gland located at the base of the brain. As the tumor grows, it can compress nearby structures such as the optic chiasm, leading to visual disturbances (due to pressure on the optic nerves), severe headache (due to increased intracranial pressure), and altered mental status (due to effects on nearby brain structures).
Question 3 of 9
Identify the causative agent of dengue fever.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The causative agent of dengue fever is a virus. Dengue fever is primarily transmitted to humans by the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. These mosquitoes act as vectors, carrying and transmitting the dengue virus (specifically four closely related but antigenically different serotypes: DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4) to humans during the feeding process. The virus then replicates in the human body, causing symptoms of dengue fever. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Virus.
Question 4 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with a history of recurrent pregnancy losses in the second trimester. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and uterine contractions are absent. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that is unable to support the weight of the growing fetus, leading to painless cervical dilation and second-trimester pregnancy loss. In this condition, the cervix may dilate prematurely without contractions, resulting in a painless cervical dilation. The history of recurrent second-trimester losses, along with cervical dilation and absence of uterine contractions in the presenting pregnant woman, are characteristic of incompetent cervix. Prompt recognition and management with cerclage placement can help prevent further pregnancy losses in women with incompetent cervix.
Question 5 of 9
A postpartum client expresses concern about feeling lightheaded when standing up. What should the nurse prioritize in the assessment to address this issue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postural hypotension, also known as orthostatic hypotension, is a common issue postpartum and can cause lightheadedness when standing up. When a postpartum client expresses concern about feeling lightheaded, assessing for postural hypotension should be a priority. This assessment involves measuring the client's blood pressure while lying down, sitting, and standing to identify any significant drops in blood pressure upon changing positions. Identifying postural hypotension early allows for appropriate interventions to prevent potential falls and address the client's symptoms. Checking blood pressure, evaluating hemoglobin levels, and monitoring for signs of hemorrhage are also important assessments but may not directly address the specific issue of feeling lightheaded when standing up in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of epistaxis, gum bleeding, and easy bruising. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal PT and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of recurrent episodes of epistaxis, gum bleeding, and easy bruising, along with laboratory findings of prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal coagulation studies (PT and aPTT) are highly suggestive of Von Willebrand disease. Von Willebrand disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder and is characterized by a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a key role in platelet adhesion and aggregation. The prolonged bleeding time is due to impaired platelet adhesion to the damaged vessel wall in the absence of functional vWF. Normal platelet count and normal PT/aPTT help differentiate Von Willebrand disease from other bleeding disorders such as hemophilia and platelet function disorders like Glanzmann thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier syndrome.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the destruction of tooth structure due to exposure to acidic substances, such as gastric acid or acidic beverages?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Erosion is the dental condition characterized by the destruction of tooth structure due to exposure to acidic substances, such as gastric acid from conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or acidic beverages like sodas and citrus fruits. This acidic attack softens and wears away the enamel, leading to the erosion of tooth structure. Unlike dental caries, which is caused by bacteria producing acid from sugars in the mouth, erosion is primarily a result of external acidic sources. Attrition refers to the wear of tooth structure from tooth-to-tooth contact, and abrasion refers to the wear of tooth structure due to forces like brushing too hard or using abrasive toothpaste.
Question 8 of 9
The best prevention management of contact latex allergy is ______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best prevention management of contact latex allergy is to avoid latex products entirely. Latex allergies can range from mild skin irritation to severe reactions such as anaphylaxis. This means that even applying lotion before using latex gloves may not be sufficient to prevent an allergic reaction in individuals who are sensitized to latex. It is important for individuals with latex allergy to completely avoid exposure to latex products, including rubberized goods, to prevent triggering an allergic response. Resigning from the job is not a practical solution and should not be necessary if proper precautions are taken to avoid latex exposure.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is collaborating with other healthcare providers to develop a plan of care for a patient. What is the primary purpose of interdisciplinary collaboration in nursing practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of interdisciplinary collaboration in nursing practice is to improve communication and coordination of patient care. When healthcare providers from different disciplines work together as a team, they can share their unique perspectives, knowledge, and skills to develop comprehensive care plans that address all aspects of a patient's well-being. This collaborative approach helps ensure that the patient receives holistic and coordinated care, leading to better outcomes and patient satisfaction. Effective communication and coordination among team members also help prevent errors, reduce duplication of efforts, and promote efficient use of resources. Overall, interdisciplinary collaboration is essential for delivering high-quality, patient-centered care in healthcare settings.