The most severe bacillary infections are caused by:

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Question 1 of 9

The most severe bacillary infections are caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shigella dysenteriae I. This bacterium is known to produce Shiga toxin, which is responsible for the most severe bacillary infections. The toxin can cause bloody diarrhea and potentially life-threatening complications like hemolytic uremic syndrome. Shigella boydii, flexneri, and sonnei, while also causing bacillary dysentery, do not produce the same level of severity as Shigella dysenteriae I due to the absence of Shiga toxin.

Question 2 of 9

A fecal sample cultured on Endo agar produced red, lactose-positive colonies. What microorganism is most likely present?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. On Endo agar, lactose-fermenting bacteria produce red colonies due to acid production. Escherichersia coli is a lactose-fermenting, gram-negative bacillus commonly found in the intestines. Salmonella and Shigella are lactose-negative and do not produce red colonies on Endo agar. Proteus is also lactose-negative and doesn't typically grow on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the lactose fermentation and colony color, Escherichia coli is the most likely microorganism present in the fecal sample.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with pneumonia had a sputum smear stained by the Gram method revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs indicates a bacterial morphology consistent with Streptococcus pneumoniae, a common cause of pneumonia. This bacterium is known to appear in pairs or short chains on Gram stain. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically presents as clusters of Gram-positive cocci, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative rod, making them less likely causative agents in this scenario.

Question 4 of 9

Microscopical examination of discharges from the gums of a patient ill with paradontosis revealed some protozoan pear-shaped organisms 6-13 micrometer long. The parasite has one nucleus and undulating membrane, there are four flagella at the front of its body. What protozoan were found?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonads. Trichomonads are pear-shaped protozoa, typically 6-13 micrometers long, with one nucleus, undulating membrane, and four flagella at the front. These characteristics match the description provided in the question. Trichomonads are commonly found in oral cavities and can cause gum infections like periodontosis. Summary: - B: Leishmania - Leishmania is a flagellated protozoan responsible for Leishmaniasis, not typically found in the oral cavity. - C: Amoebae - Amoebae are not pear-shaped and do not have the specific characteristics described in the question. - D: Balantidia - Balantidia are ciliated protozoa, not flagellated like trichomonads, and are not typically associated with gum infections.

Question 5 of 9

A patient has been suffering from elevated temperature and attacks of typical cough for 10 days. Doctor administered inoculation of mucus from the patient's nasopharynx on the agar. What microorganism is presumed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pertussis bacillus. The symptoms described - elevated temperature and typical cough - are indicative of whooping cough, caused by Bordetella pertussis. By inoculating mucus from the nasopharynx on agar, the doctor is trying to isolate the causative agent, which is likely to be Pertussis bacillus. Summary of other choices: B: Pfeiffer's bacillus (Haemophilus influenzae): Unlikely as symptoms do not match. C: Listeria: Unlikely as it typically causes foodborne illness, not respiratory infections. D: Klebsiella: Unlikely as it is more commonly associated with pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals.

Question 6 of 9

A child with diarrhea had stool microscopy revealing flagellated protozoa with two nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia is a flagellated protozoa with two nuclei, causing diarrhea. It is commonly found in contaminated water sources. Entamoeba histolytica (B) causes amoebic dysentery with trophozoites in stool. Trichomonas vaginalis (C) causes sexually transmitted infections, not diarrhea. Balantidium coli (D) is a ciliated protozoa causing dysentery with ciliated trophozoites. Therefore, Giardia lamblia is the most likely causative agent in this case.

Question 7 of 9

Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aspergillosis and candidiasis. Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is commonly used in diagnosing these fungal infections. Galactomannan is a component of the cell wall of Aspergillus species, while free mannan is associated with Candida species. This detection method helps in identifying these specific fungal infections accurately. B: Syphilis is caused by a bacterium, Treponema pallidum, and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. C: Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by the Leptospira species and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. D: HIV infection is a viral infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection.

Question 8 of 9

The mumps virus belongs to family:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Paramyxoviridae. Mumps virus is a member of the Paramyxoviridae family, based on its characteristics such as structure, genome organization, and replication cycle. Paramyxoviruses are enveloped, non-segmented RNA viruses with a helical nucleocapsid. They replicate in the cytoplasm and bud from the host cell membrane. Coronaviridae (A) are a different family of viruses with distinct characteristics. Picornaviridae (B) and Orthomyxoviridae (C) are also different families with unique features that do not match those of the mumps virus.

Question 9 of 9

A 2-year-old unvaccinated child is admitted to hospital with high grade fever, maculopapular rash and whitish spots located bilaterally on the buccal mucosa, corresponding to Filatov-Koplik's spots. What kind of test will support your diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles serological test. This is because the clinical presentation of high fever, maculopapular rash, and Filatov-Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa are classic symptoms of measles. The presence of Filatov-Koplik's spots is highly specific for measles. Performing a measles serological test will help confirm the diagnosis by detecting measles-specific antibodies in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Mumps serological test - Mumps typically presents with parotitis (swelling of the parotid glands) and not with Filatov-Koplik's spots. B: Enteroviruses serological test - Enteroviruses do not typically cause Filatov-Koplik's spots or the classic triad of symptoms seen in measles. D: Influenza virus serological test - Influenza virus does not cause Filatov-Koplik's spots and the characteristic rash seen

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