ATI RN
Oxygenation Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The most important property of helium with respect to its use in helium-oxygen therapy is its:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Density. In helium-oxygen therapy, the low density of helium is crucial because it reduces airway resistance. This property allows for improved gas flow in obstructive conditions like asthma or COPD. By replacing some of the nitrogen in air with helium, the overall density of the gas mixture decreases, making it easier for patients to breathe, especially when there is airway constriction. Option A) Viscosity is incorrect because while viscosity is a property that affects flow resistance, it is not the most important property when considering helium's use in therapy. Helium's low density has a more significant impact on airway resistance reduction. Option C) Concentration is incorrect because while the concentration of helium in the mixture is important for achieving the desired therapeutic effects, it is not the most critical property of helium itself in this context. Option D) Specific gravity is incorrect because specific gravity is a measure of the density of a substance compared to the density of water and is not the primary property that makes helium beneficial in oxygen therapy. In an educational context, understanding the properties of gases used in respiratory therapy is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to deliver optimal care to patients with respiratory conditions. Knowing why helium's low density is essential in improving gas flow and reducing airway resistance can help in making informed decisions when managing patients requiring oxygen therapy. This knowledge enables healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care tailored to the individual needs of each patient.
Question 2 of 5
Which drug is not an inotropic agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) Salbutamol. Salbutamol is a bronchodilator (beta-2 agonist) used primarily in the treatment of respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It is not an inotropic agent, meaning it does not directly affect cardiac contractility. Milrinone (A), Digoxin (C), and Dopamine (D) are all inotropic agents that affect the force of cardiac muscle contraction. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), leading to enhanced myocardial contractility. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that inhibits the sodium-potassium pump, resulting in increased intracellular calcium levels and improved cardiac contractility. Dopamine is a catecholamine that acts on adrenergic receptors to increase myocardial contractility. Understanding the difference between inotropic agents and bronchodilators is crucial in clinical practice, especially for nurses caring for patients with cardiac and respiratory conditions. Correctly identifying medications and their effects helps ensure safe and effective patient care. Nurses must be knowledgeable about pharmacology to administer medications safely, monitor for side effects, and educate patients on their treatments. This knowledge also plays a vital role in interdisciplinary healthcare teams, promoting effective communication and collaboration to optimize patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Pulmonary hypertension is defined as a mean pulmonary artery pressure greater than:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer, B) 25 mmHg, is the accurate definition of pulmonary hypertension. Pulmonary hypertension is diagnosed when the mean pulmonary artery pressure exceeds 25 mmHg at rest. This threshold is crucial for identifying the presence of increased pressure within the pulmonary circulation, which can lead to serious health implications. Option A) 15 mmHg is incorrect because this pressure level is within the normal range for pulmonary artery pressure at rest, and does not meet the criteria for diagnosing pulmonary hypertension. Option C) 35 mmHg and option D) 45 mmHg are both higher than the defined threshold for pulmonary hypertension. While these pressures may indicate significant issues within the pulmonary circulation, they are not the specific value used to diagnose pulmonary hypertension. Educationally, understanding the correct threshold for defining pulmonary hypertension is essential for nurses providing care to patients with cardiopulmonary conditions. Recognizing this value allows for timely identification and management of pulmonary hypertension, which can significantly impact patient outcomes. Nurses must be knowledgeable about these diagnostic criteria to provide effective care and advocate for appropriate interventions for patients with pulmonary hypertension.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following lung volumes or capacities is calculated by adding the tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Vital capacity. Vital capacity is calculated by adding the tidal volume (Vt), inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV). This calculation represents the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation, making it a crucial measure of lung function. Option A) Inspiratory capacity is calculated by adding tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume, not expiratory reserve volume. This measure represents the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation. Option B) Functional residual capacity is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation and is calculated by adding expiratory reserve volume and residual volume. Option D) Total lung capacity is the sum of all lung volumes, including vital capacity, residual volume, and other lung volumes not included in the calculation for vital capacity. Understanding lung volumes and capacities is essential in nursing practice to assess respiratory function, diagnose respiratory conditions, and monitor the effectiveness of interventions such as oxygen therapy and mechanical ventilation. By knowing how to interpret these values, nurses can provide better care for patients with respiratory issues.
Question 5 of 5
A patient on trach mask trials with a 7.5 mm Shiley trach tube is requiring open tracheal suctioning. Which of the following would be the recommended PPE to wear?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of performing open tracheal suctioning on a patient with a trach tube, wearing gloves, goggles, and a face mask (Option C) is crucial to ensure the safety of both the healthcare provider and the patient. Wearing gloves is essential to prevent the transmission of microorganisms and protect the provider from direct contact with secretions. Goggles are necessary to shield the eyes from potential splashes of secretions, which could lead to infection or irritation. A face mask is important to protect the provider's airway from inhaling aerosolized secretions, reducing the risk of respiratory infections. Option A (Gowns and face mask) is incorrect because gowns do not provide sufficient protection for the eyes, which are vulnerable to exposure during suctioning procedures. Option B (Goggles and face mask) is also incorrect as it does not include gloves, which are necessary to prevent direct contact with secretions. This educational context emphasizes the importance of proper personal protective equipment (PPE) in respiratory care procedures to maintain a safe environment for both patients and healthcare providers. Adhering to recommended PPE guidelines helps minimize the risk of infection transmission and ensures quality patient care.