ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased active efflux from the bacterial cell. This is the most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance because it involves the bacteria actively pumping out the antibiotic, reducing its intracellular concentration. This prevents tetracycline from effectively targeting bacterial ribosomes. Choice A is incorrect as tetracycline resistance typically involves active efflux rather than reduced influx. Choice B is incorrect because tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not primarily involve altered cell membrane components affecting passive influx. Choice D is also incorrect as tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not typically involve direct enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.
Question 2 of 9
Almost half of all the STIs diagnosed in the United States are among:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: young adults. Young adults are at a higher risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) due to factors such as engaging in risky sexual behaviors, lack of awareness, and inconsistent condom use. They are more likely to have multiple sexual partners and are less likely to seek regular STI screenings. Adolescents, while also at risk, may not make up almost half of all STI cases in the U.S. The elderly, on the other hand, are generally at a lower risk due to lower levels of sexual activity compared to young adults.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic on blood agar. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest Streptococcus species. Step 2: Catalase-negative eliminates Staphylococcus aureus. Step 3: Beta-hemolytic on blood agar matches Streptococcus pyogenes. Step 4: Streptococcus pyogenes is a common cause of sore throat (pharyngitis). Summary: A: Streptococcus pyogenes - Correct due to Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase-negative, beta-hemolytic, and common cause of sore throat. B: Staphylococcus aureus - Incorrect due to catalase-positive. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect due to alpha-hemolytic. D: Enterococcus faecalis - Incorrect due to not being beta-hemolytic.
Question 4 of 9
A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoa disease was examined. Examination of the stained specimen (Romanovsky's stain) revealed some crescent bodies with pointed end, blue cytoplasm and red nucleus. What protozoan were revealed in the smears?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malarial plasmodiums. The description of crescent bodies with a pointed end, blue cytoplasm, and red nucleus corresponds to the characteristics of Plasmodium species seen in Romanovsky's stain. Plasmodium species are known to cause malaria and have distinct features like the ones described. Incorrect choices: A: Toxoplasmas - Toxoplasma gondii typically appear as tachyzoites or bradyzoites under staining, not crescent bodies. C: Dermotropic leishmania - Leishmania species appear as amastigotes in tissue smears, not crescent bodies. D: Viscerotropic leishmania - Similar to choice C, Leishmania species do not typically present as crescent bodies in stained specimens.
Question 5 of 9
The most commonly acquired laboratory infections are caused by
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: bacteria. Bacteria are the most common cause of laboratory-acquired infections due to their ability to survive and multiply in various environments. They can easily contaminate lab equipment and surfaces, leading to infections if proper precautions are not taken. Viruses (choice B) are less common in laboratory-acquired infections as they require specific conditions to survive outside a host. Protozoans (choice C) are larger and less likely to be transmitted in a laboratory setting. Prions (choice D) are misfolded proteins and are not considered living organisms, making them an unlikely source of laboratory infections.
Question 6 of 9
A 12-year-old boy presents with nausea, frequent repeated vomiting that first occurred after eating canned vegetables. Objectively: the patient has dry mucous membranes, muscular hypotonia, anisocoria, mydriasis, dysphagia and dysarthria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Botulism. The symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting after eating canned vegetables, dry mucous membranes, muscular hypotonia, anisocoria, mydriasis, dysphagia, and dysarthria, are classic signs of botulism poisoning. Botulism is caused by the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria found in improperly canned or preserved food. The neurotoxin affects the nervous system, leading to symptoms like those described. Shigellosis (B), Salmonellosis (C), and Cholera (D) typically present with different symptoms such as diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pain, which are not seen in this patient.
Question 7 of 9
Name the halogen-containing antiseptic with fungicidal properties, which is used to treat dermatomycosis:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Iodine solution contains iodine, a halogen with antiseptic properties. 2. Iodine is effective against fungi, making it suitable for treating dermatomycosis. 3. Iodine solution is commonly used in dermatology for its fungicidal properties. 4. Formalin, methylene blue, and brilliant green do not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties. Summary: - Formalin is a disinfectant, not an antiseptic for dermatomycosis. - Methylene blue is an antifungal dye, not used as an antiseptic. - Brilliant green is an antiseptic, but does not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties.
Question 8 of 9
A patient suffers from severe postoperative pseudomonadous infection. What of the following antibiotics should be administered in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amikacin sulfate. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to many antibiotics, but aminoglycosides like Amikacin have good activity against it. Step 1: Identify the pathogen causing the infection. Step 2: Consider the antibiotic's spectrum of activity against the pathogen. Step 3: Choose an antibiotic with proven efficacy. Amikacin is a good choice due to its effectiveness against Pseudomonas. Choice B, Benzylpenicillin, is a penicillin which is not effective against Pseudomonas. Choice C, Cephazolin, is a cephalosporin with limited activity against Pseudomonas. Choice D, Erythromycin, is a macrolide which is not effective against Pseudomonas.
Question 9 of 9
The most common bacterial species in hospital environment is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is commonly found in hospital environments due to its ability to colonize human skin and mucous membranes. It is a leading cause of hospital-acquired infections. Borrelia burgdorferi is mainly associated with Lyme disease transmitted by ticks, not commonly found in hospitals. Bacillus cereus is a foodborne pathogen, not typically prevalent in hospital settings. Staphylococcus haemolyticus is a coagulase-negative staphylococcus species, less pathogenic and less common in hospitals compared to Staphylococcus aureus.