ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased active efflux from the bacterial cell. This is the most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance because it involves the bacteria actively pumping out the antibiotic, reducing its intracellular concentration. This prevents tetracycline from effectively targeting bacterial ribosomes. Choice A is incorrect as tetracycline resistance typically involves active efflux rather than reduced influx. Choice B is incorrect because tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not primarily involve altered cell membrane components affecting passive influx. Choice D is also incorrect as tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not typically involve direct enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.
Question 2 of 5
Patients after splenectomy are of high risk of infections caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.
Question 3 of 5
During latency, HSV1 exists in what form:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During latency, HSV1 exists as episomes in neurons. This is because HSV1 establishes a lifelong latent infection in sensory neurons, where the viral genome remains as a circular episome in the nucleus. This form allows the virus to persist in a dormant state, avoiding detection by the immune system. Choice A is incorrect as HSV1 does not integrate into the host chromosome. Choice C is incorrect as latency is a well-documented phenomenon for HSV1. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is B.
Question 4 of 5
A 25-year-old patient reports pain, burning at urination and scarce secretion in the morning. Urine samples are taken and cultivated on blood and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours of incubation, the culture are sterile. Which one of the following bacteria is the most probable cause of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. This is because Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot be cultured on standard agar plates. The symptoms described by the patient, such as pain, burning at urination, and scarce secretion in the morning, are indicative of a possible chlamydial infection. Additionally, the fact that the urine cultures are sterile after 24 hours of incubation suggests that the causative agent is not a typical bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which would normally grow on agar plates. Therefore, Chlamydia trachomatis is the most probable cause of this disease. Summary: A: Escherichia coli - Incorrect, as it is a common cause of urinary tract infections and would typically grow on agar plates. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect, as it is
Question 5 of 5
The most common bacterial species in hospital environment is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is commonly found in hospital environments due to its ability to colonize human skin and mucous membranes. It is a leading cause of hospital-acquired infections. Borrelia burgdorferi is mainly associated with Lyme disease transmitted by ticks, not commonly found in hospitals. Bacillus cereus is a foodborne pathogen, not typically prevalent in hospital settings. Staphylococcus haemolyticus is a coagulase-negative staphylococcus species, less pathogenic and less common in hospitals compared to Staphylococcus aureus.