ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is : *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and vomiting. Oral ampicillin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting due to its impact on the gut flora. This side effect is a result of the antibiotic's mechanism of action and is well-documented in clinical practice. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as loose bowel movements, constipation, and urticaria are not typically associated with oral ampicillin use.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase * without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nevirapine. Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation. It binds directly to the enzyme's active site, preventing the conversion of viral RNA to DNA. Rationale: 1. Nelnavir (A) is a protease inhibitor that works by blocking the protease enzyme needed for viral replication, not reverse transcriptase inhibition. 2. Stavudine (C) and Didanosine (D) are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that require intracellular phosphorylation to become active, unlike Nevirapine. In summary, Nevirapine is the correct answer as it directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation, distinguishing it from the other choices which belong to different drug classes or require intracellular phosphorylation.
Question 3 of 5
Which statement best describes Zidovudine: *
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV. 2. Zidovudine is indeed converted by cellular enzymes to its active form, zidovudine diphosphate. 3. Zidovudine diphosphate inhibits the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing viral DNA replication in HIV-infected cells. 4. This mechanism of action is crucial in reducing viral load and slowing disease progression in HIV patients. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Incorrect. While Zidovudine is used in combination therapy for HIV, it is not typically an alternative initial treatment. B: Incorrect. Zidovudine can be used to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV, but it is not its primary indication. D: Incorrect. Peripheral neuropathy is not a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine; rather, it is more commonly associated with
Question 4 of 5
The following topical antifungal drugs include all EXCEPT: *
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crotamiton. Crotamiton is not an antifungal drug; it is actually a scabicide and antipruritic agent used to treat scabies and itching. A: Tolnaftate is an antifungal commonly used to treat fungal skin infections like athlete's foot. C: Terbinafine is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections of the skin and nails. D: Ciclopirox is an antifungal used to treat fungal infections of the nails and skin.
Question 5 of 5
A patient was treated with digoxin and he develop signs and symptoms of * digoxin toxicity caused by furosemide therapy. What did the diuretic most likely do to precipitate the digoxin toxicityy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: caused by hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss (hypokalemia), which can exacerbate digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels increase the risk of digoxin binding more strongly to cardiac tissue, leading to toxicity symptoms. Hypocalcemia (A) and hyponatremia (B) are not directly related to digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices. Choice D is incorrect as hypokalemia is a known risk factor for digoxin toxicity.