ATI RN
NCLEX RN Pediatric Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The MOST common type of cerebral palsy is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) spastic cerebral palsy. Spastic cerebral palsy is the most common type, affecting about 70-80% of individuals with cerebral palsy. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and tightness, which can affect movement and coordination. This type of cerebral palsy is caused by damage to the motor cortex of the brain. Option A) ataxic cerebral palsy is characterized by problems with balance and coordination. Option C) dystonic cerebral palsy involves involuntary muscle contractions, leading to twisting and repetitive movements. Option D) dyskinetic cerebral palsy includes both athetoid and choreoathetoid types, resulting in uncontrolled movements. Educationally, understanding the different types of cerebral palsy is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working with pediatric populations. Recognizing the characteristics of each type can help in providing appropriate care, interventions, and therapies tailored to the individual needs of children with cerebral palsy. It also aids in early identification and intervention, improving outcomes and quality of life for these patients.
Question 2 of 5
These facts are true regarding the developmental stage of preschool children EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) masturbation. Preschool children typically do not engage in masturbation as a developmental milestone. Understanding the rationale for why the correct answer is right involves recognizing typical developmental milestones for preschool children. Preschoolers are not developmentally ready for sexual exploration behaviors like masturbation, as this behavior emerges later during puberty. Option A, handedness achieved by 3 years of age, is correct. By age 3, most children have developed a dominant hand preference, although it may not be fully established until a bit later. Option B states that boys are usually later than girls in achieving bladder control, which is true. Girls typically achieve bladder control earlier than boys due to differences in physical development. Option C, knowing gender by 4 years, is also accurate. By age 4, children typically have a strong understanding of their own gender identity and can correctly identify the gender of others. Understanding these developmental milestones is crucial for pediatric nursing practice as it helps nurses assess a child's growth and development accurately. Recognizing deviations from these norms can indicate potential developmental delays or concerns that may require further evaluation or intervention. It is essential for nurses preparing for the NCLEX RN exam to have a solid understanding of typical developmental milestones across different age groups to provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients.
Question 3 of 5
All the following are recognizable teratogens EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) hypothermia. A teratogen is a substance that can cause malformations or disruptions in the development of an embryo or fetus. Hypothermia is not a substance but rather a condition of low body temperature, which in itself does not have a direct teratogenic effect on the developing fetus. A) Ethanol is a well-known teratogen that can cause fetal alcohol syndrome, leading to physical, cognitive, and behavioral abnormalities in the newborn. B) Antiepileptic medications have been associated with an increased risk of birth defects when taken during pregnancy. It is important for women taking these medications to consult with their healthcare provider to weigh the risks and benefits. C) Toxoplasmosis is an infection caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii. If a pregnant woman contracts toxoplasmosis for the first time during pregnancy, it can be transmitted to the fetus and lead to severe consequences, including neurological damage and vision problems. Educational Context: Understanding teratogens is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers working with pregnant women to help prevent birth defects and promote healthy pregnancies. Educating women about avoiding exposure to teratogens is an essential aspect of prenatal care. By knowing which substances or factors can harm the developing fetus, healthcare professionals can provide guidance on how to minimize risks and ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Question 4 of 5
The birthweight usually quadruples by the age of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding growth and development milestones is crucial. The correct answer is B) 2 yr. Birthweight typically quadruples by the age of 2 years in a healthy infant. This rapid growth phase is essential for monitoring overall health and development during early childhood. Option A) 1.5 yr is incorrect because by this age, the birthweight does not usually quadruple yet. Option C) 2.5 yr is also incorrect as it is past the typical age for quadrupling birthweight. Option D) 3 yr is too late for this significant growth milestone to occur. Educationally, knowing when certain growth milestones are expected helps nurses assess a child's development and overall well-being. It also guides healthcare providers in identifying any potential growth concerns or delays that may require further evaluation or intervention. Understanding these timelines is essential for providing quality pediatric care and promoting optimal health outcomes for children.
Question 5 of 5
A 1-year old boy presents with high grade fever and conjunctivitis for 4 days followed by generalized maculopapular rash. One of his elder siblings had similar complaints 10 days back. The most likely diagnosis is?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 1-year-old boy in this scenario is measles (Option D). Measles typically presents with high fever, conjunctivitis, and a maculopapular rash. The fact that his sibling had similar complaints 10 days prior suggests a contagious viral illness like measles, which spreads easily among unvaccinated individuals. Rubella (Option A) presents with a milder illness and a rash that starts on the face and spreads downward. Kawasaki disease (Option B) is characterized by prolonged fever, mucosal changes, extremity changes, and lymphadenopathy, but it does not typically present with a rash like measles. Scarlet fever (Option C) is caused by Group A Streptococcus and presents with a rash and "strawberry" tongue, but it does not match the presentation described in the case. Educationally, understanding the typical presentation of common pediatric illnesses is crucial for nurses preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam. Recognizing the specific signs and symptoms of each condition helps in accurate diagnosis and timely intervention, improving patient outcomes. It also underscores the importance of vaccination in preventing diseases like measles, highlighting the role of public health initiatives in pediatric care.