The MOST common type of cerebral palsy is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) spastic cerebral palsy. Spastic cerebral palsy is the most common type, affecting around 70-80% of individuals with cerebral palsy. This type is characterized by muscle stiffness and tightness, affecting the ability to move and control limbs. Ataxic cerebral palsy (Option A) is characterized by poor coordination and balance issues, but it is less common than spastic cerebral palsy. Dystonic cerebral palsy (Option C) involves involuntary muscle contractions leading to twisting and repetitive movements. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy (Option D) includes both dystonic and choreoathetoid movements. Understanding the different types of cerebral palsy is crucial for nurses, especially those working with pediatric patients. Recognizing the specific characteristics of each type helps in providing appropriate care and interventions tailored to the individual's needs. In the case of spastic cerebral palsy, interventions may focus on managing muscle tone, improving mobility, and enhancing quality of life for the child and their family.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question about developmental stages of preschool children on the NCLEX RN exam, the correct answer is D) masturbation. Preschool children typically do not engage in masturbation as a normal developmental behavior. A) Handedness being achieved by 3 years of age is correct as most children establish a hand preference by this age. B) Boys being later than girls in achieving bladder control is also true due to differences in physical development. C) Knowing gender by 4 years is accurate as children typically have a solid understanding of their gender identity by this age. It is essential for nurses to understand typical developmental milestones in children to assess for any delays or abnormalities. By knowing what behaviors are expected at certain ages, healthcare providers can intervene early if there are any concerns. Understanding these developmental norms also helps nurses educate parents on what to expect and how to support their child's growth and development.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question from the NCLEX RN Pediatric Questions, the correct answer is D) hypothermia. Hypothermia is not a recognizable teratogen because it is a condition caused by low body temperature and not a substance or agent that can cause birth defects. Ethanol (option A) is a known teratogen that can result in fetal alcohol spectrum disorders. Antiepileptic medications (option B) have been associated with an increased risk of birth defects when taken during pregnancy. Toxoplasmosis (option C) is an infection caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted to the fetus during pregnancy and cause congenital toxoplasmosis. Educationally, understanding teratogens is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pregnant women to help prevent exposure to harmful substances that can affect fetal development. Recognizing teratogens and their effects can guide healthcare providers in advising pregnant women on lifestyle choices and medications to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) 2 yr. This question pertains to pediatric growth and development. By the age of 2 years, a child's birthweight usually quadruples. This rapid growth is a crucial indicator of healthy development during the early years of life. Option A) 1.5 yr is incorrect because by this age, a child's birthweight typically triples, not quadruples. Option C) 2.5 yr is also incorrect as by this age, a child's birthweight would have exceeded quadrupling. Option D) 3 yr is incorrect because by this age, a child's birthweight would have more than quadrupled, indicating further growth and development. Understanding pediatric growth milestones is essential for nurses taking the NCLEX-RN exam as it helps them assess a child's development, detect any potential issues early, and provide appropriate care and interventions. Monitoring growth parameters like birthweight helps healthcare professionals ensure children are progressing as expected and identify any concerns promptly.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 1-year-old boy with high-grade fever, conjunctivitis, and a generalized maculopapular rash, especially with a history of an elder sibling having similar complaints 10 days prior, is measles (Option D). Measles typically presents with the described symptoms and is highly contagious, especially among unvaccinated individuals. Educational Context: Measles is a highly infectious viral illness that can lead to serious complications, especially in young children. Recognizing the clinical presentation of measles is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management. This question challenges the test-taker to identify the characteristic symptoms of measles in a pediatric patient. Explanation of Incorrect Options: A) Rubella: Rubella typically presents with a milder rash and less severe systemic symptoms compared to measles. B) Kawasaki Disease: Kawasaki disease presents with fever, mucosal changes, rash, and lymphadenopathy, but does not typically involve conjunctivitis as a prominent feature. C) Scarlet Fever: Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus and presents with a sandpaper-like rash and strawberry tongue, but typically does not have the classic conjunctivitis seen in measles.