ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The MOST common type of breech presentation is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet
Question 2 of 9
The lie is defined as unstable when it keeps varying after
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this point in pregnancy, the fetus has reached a stable lie position. Before 36 weeks, fetal lie can vary due to the ample space in the uterus. After 36 weeks, the fetus tends to settle into a consistent head-down or breech position, making the lie stable. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where the lie typically stabilizes, leading to less variability in fetal positioning.
Question 3 of 9
Which one of the following is involved in the management of cord prolapse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placing client on Trendelenburg position. This helps prevent compression of the cord by moving the presenting part off the cord. Placing the client on all fours (choice A) may worsen cord compression. Application of fundal pressure (choice B) is contraindicated as it can further compress the cord. Labor augmentation with oxytocin (choice D) is not indicated in cord prolapse management as it does not address the immediate risk to the fetus. Trendelenburg position is the recommended intervention to alleviate cord compression and improve fetal oxygenation.
Question 4 of 9
The most common cause of immediate postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony, not trauma to the genital tract.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Uterine atony is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contraction to control bleeding. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. Trauma to the genital tract is a less common cause and usually leads to delayed hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect as uterine atony is a well-documented primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as uterine atony is consistently the leading cause. Choice D is incorrect as the cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is clear, with uterine atony being the most common culprit.
Question 5 of 9
The AGACNP knows that which of the following must be evaluated as a cause of her abdominal pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: HELLP syndrome. This must be evaluated as a cause of abdominal pain in a pregnant patient because it is a serious condition characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. These abnormalities can lead to abdominal pain, especially in the right upper quadrant. Placental abruption (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness, not specific abdominal pain. Spontaneous hepatic rupture (C) is rare and usually presents with sudden severe abdominal pain. Preterm labor (D) typically presents with regular uterine contractions and lower abdominal discomfort, not specific upper quadrant pain like in HELLP syndrome.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with suspected Cushings syndrome is being evaluated to establish the diagnosis and cause. Patients with an adrenal tumor typically will demonstrate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Low ACTH and low cortisol) because in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor autonomously produces cortisol, leading to suppression of ACTH secretion from the pituitary. This results in low ACTH levels and high cortisol levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the characteristic hormone levels seen in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.
Question 7 of 9
What are the key signs of preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and symptoms like severe headaches. High blood pressure is a hallmark sign, proteinuria indicates kidney damage, and severe headaches can be a symptom of worsening preeclampsia. Therefore, all three signs are crucial for diagnosing preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key signs necessary for diagnosing preeclampsia.
Question 8 of 9
P. T. is a 58-year-old female who is admitted with chest pain and shortness of breath and is found to have a large pulmonary embolus. Her systolic blood pressure is falling, and a diagnosis of obstructive shock is made. Cardiac pressure would likely demonstrate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in obstructive shock due to a large pulmonary embolus, there is increased resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, leading to elevated right ventricular pressure. This causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, increasing left ventricular pressure. The increased left ventricular pressure results in decreased cardiac output as the left ventricle struggles to pump against the increased resistance. A: Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures - This is incorrect as obstructive shock typically results in elevated ventricular pressures due to increased resistance. B: Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures - This is partially true, but C is a more complete answer that explains the consequences of these pressures on cardiac output. D: Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance - This is incorrect as obstructive shock leads to increased, not decreased, systemic vascular resistance due to the embolus obstructing blood flow.
Question 9 of 9
Mrs. Maroldo is an 81-year-old female who presents for evaluation of pain in her left lower quadrant. She has had this pain before and says she usually takes antibiotics and it goes away. However, this time it seems worse, and she has had it for 4 days even though she says she started taking her leftover antibiotics from the last episode. She denies any nausea or vomiting but says she simply isnt hungry. She had a little diarrhea yesterday but no bowel movements today. She has a temperature of 100.9F and a pulse of 104 bpm, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 9460 mm Hg. She has some discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. The AGACNP suspects
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritable bowel syndrome. Mrs. Maroldo's history of recurrent left lower quadrant pain that usually resolves with antibiotics suggests a chronic condition rather than an acute one like diverticulitis, appendicitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. Her lack of nausea, vomiting, and severe symptoms, along with the presence of diarrhea and no bowel movements, align more with irritable bowel syndrome. Additionally, her vital signs are not significantly elevated, ruling out acute conditions like appendicitis. Discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant is common in irritable bowel syndrome due to visceral hypersensitivity. Therefore, based on her chronic symptoms, lack of severe signs, and typical presentation, the most likely diagnosis is irritable bowel syndrome.