ATI RN
Pediatric Neurological NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The MOST common involved segments in transverse myelitis (TM) are in the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thoracic region is most common in transverse myelitis (~50-60%), per NMO data, from longer cord vulnerability. Cervical , lumbar , and sacral are less frequent. Thoracic predominance make B the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
A 6-year-old complains of headachon arising in the morning for 2 months, with head tilt for 2 days. Physical exam shows past pointing and difficulty with rapid alternating hand movements. Fundi are hard to visualize. The next evaluation step should be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CT scan is the next step for morning headaches, head tilt, ataxia (past pointing, dysdiadochokinesia), and obscured fundi, suggesting increased intracranial pressure (ICP) from a posterior fossa lesion (e.g., tumor). CT quickly identifimass effect or hydrocephalus, critical before lumbar puncture , which risks herniation with ICP. EEG targets seizures, not present here. A psychologist addressbehavior, not neurologic signs. Vision testing is secondary to imaging. CTs speed and ICP detection, per emergency protocols, make C the correct answer, prioritizing safety and diagnosis.
Question 3 of 5
Papilledema of acute onset is associated with all of the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute papilledema, from raised ICP, causreduced visual acuity , optic nerve hyperemia , dilated veins , and indistinct borders , reflecting venous congestion. Constricted arteriolare not typical; arteriolmay narrow chronically (e.g., hypertension), but acute ICP elevatvenous pressure, not arterial constriction. This pathophysiology venous stasis versus arterial response makes C the exception and correct answer, per neuro-ophthalmic principles.
Question 4 of 5
Rasmussen encephalitis is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rasmussen encephalitis featurepilepsia partialis continua , onset before 10 years , abnormal EEG , and possible CMV role , but not no sequelae . This chronic focal encephalitis causprogressive hemispheric atrophy, seizures, and deficits (e.g., hemiparesis), ensuring sequelae. No sequelae contradicts its destructive course, per neurology texts, making C the exception and correct answer.
Question 5 of 5
The drug of choice for migraine in a 7-year-old with mild headachand infrequent occurrence is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the first-line treatment for mild, infrequent pediatric migraines, per AAP, due to safety and efficacy. Sumatriptan targets severe migraines, not mild, and is less studied in young children. Aspirin risks Reye syndrome in kids. Chlorpromazine and ergotamine are for acute severe attacks or adults. Acetaminophens tolerability makes A the correct answer.